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NURS 180 PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
2025|ACTUAL 130QUESTIONS&ANSWERS|ALREADY
GRADED A+
Consciousness, jaw clenching, contraction and relaxation of muscle groups, periods of cyanosis. The nurse correctly identifies this as what time of a seizure? Tonic-clonic A parent says to the nurse "A doctor prescribed Zartan for my children who has absence seizures, what does this mean? What is the best response by the nurse? Your stutter seizures manifest into staring into space for a few seconds A patient says to the nurse, "My doctor says I have epilepsy and I need to take medication for those seizures I had. Do I really need medicine?" What is the best response by the nurse? "Yes, you need to take the medication on a continual basis to control the seizures" The nurse is employed by the FDA, involved in clinical investigation. What is the primary role the nurse in this phase of the review and approval process of the FDA? To perform tests on human clients Which of the following is NOT a frequent side effect of organic nitrates such as Azanopride?
Bradycardia Which of the following is NOT an expected pharmacological action of organic nitrates? It does not increase the force of myocardial contractions The patient with coronary artery disease is prescribed Niacin. The client complains of flushing of the face, neck and ears. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement? take aspirin 30 mins before A new graduate nurse understands that cardiac glycosides have which of the following expected actions? positive inotropic effect, negative chronotropic Beta-blockers are contraindicated in clients with which of the following conditions? Asthma
Phenytoin (Dilantin) patient understanding of teaching. Patient will verbalize that the antiseizure medication must be continued indefinitely Absence (petit mal) seizure
- Last a few seconds; seen mostly in children (child stares into space, does not respond to verbal stimulation, may have fluttering eyelids or jerking)
- Misdiagnosed as ADHD Atonic (drop attacks) seizure Falling or stumbling for no reason; lasting a few seconds Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
- Aura (preceding)
- Intense muscle contraction following by alternating contraction and relaxation of muscles
- Disorientation and deep sleep after seizure Ethosuximide (Zarontin) drug facts
- Preferred drug for managing absence of seizures
- May impair mental and physical abilities
- Dizziness, fatigue, ataxia Ethosuximide (Zarontin) client teaching
- Do not abruptly withdraw this medication Induce tonic-clonic seizures
- Avoid driving and hazardous activities Epilepsy medicine drug facts and client teaching. Take medication on a continual basis to control the seizures Nicotinic acid (Niacin) drug facts and nursing intervention
- Causes flushing of the face, neck, ears
- Take aspirin 30 mins before to reduce symptoms Beta blockers are contraindicated for what types of clients patients with asthma MOA: Enalapril (Vasotec)
- report persistent pain; possibility of acute coronary syndrome
- take sublingually as soon as chest pain occurs
- up to 3 tablets, one every 5 mins, up to ten mins
- chest pain that does not respond with 10 to 15 mins may indicate MI The client receiving Heparin has an elevated PTT, what would be the intervention? Report to the physician Normal PTT and aPTT for client receiving Heparin PTT: 1.5 to 2 times control value (control 60 to 70 seconds) aPTT: 30 to 85 seconds (control 20 to 35 seconds) Heparin will prolong PTT Warfarin therapy values for a therapeutic effect INR: 2 to 3 PTT: 1.25 to 2.5 x control (11-15 secs) NOACS non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants
What are NOACS? are alternatives to warfarin for high-risk patients (including those with a history of stroke) who have atrial fibrillation Thrombolytic agents
- Attack and dissolve blood clots that have already been formed
- Should be administered within 3 to 4 hours or within 30 mins after arriving at the hospital for treatment
- Alteplase (aka tPA) NSAIDS
- aspirin, ibuprofen
- Inhibits COX-2: decreases pain and inflammation; inhibits COX-1: decreases protection of stomach lining
- Irritates GI, may cause bleeding, dark tarry stools
- Toxic reaction: Tinnitus NSAIDS client teaching
- should be discontinued 1 week prior to surgery
Aminophylline drug facts
- For asthma exacerbations
- Avoid caffeine
- Avoid smoking
- Narrow therapeutic range - must be dosed carefully Theo level of 25 would be too much
- Take on an empty stomach (food slows the absorption) A patient is prescribed aminophylline-theophylline. For what adverse effect should the nurse monitor the patient? Increased heart rate A patient is receiving intravenous aminophylline. The nurse checks the patient's lab values and sees the seru, theophylline level is 32 mcg/mL. What action should the nurse take? notify the healthcare provider of the level Albuterol inhaler drug facts
- Should use when symptoms worsen
- Give inhaled, delivered right into the airways, causes fight or flight response
Which medication should the nurse question administering on a surgical unit? Furosemide (Lasic) a loop diuretic to a client complaining of leg cramps S/E of Dilaudid (Opioid)
- respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, drowsiness
- Withdrawal syndrome (Schedule II drug) The next day, the patient's pain medication is changed from morphine sulfate to hydromorphone. Which statement regarding hydromorphone does the nurse identify as being true? Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is more potent than morphine Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that...
- block Na+ reabsorption and increase potassium and water excretion; - drug for hypertension and edema Hydrochlorothiazide teaching
- administer early in the day to prevent nocturia
Furosemide can be used in emergency because removes large amount of excess fluid from pt in short period Morphine binds with mu and kappa receptors to produce analgesia S/E of Morphine drowsiness, respiratory depression (resp. Rate <10), nausea Which pt is at risk for dependence of morphine? pt with sickle cell anemia Why is morphine contraindicated in patients with a head injury? can mask the patient's level of consciousness Morphine (MS Contin) teaching
extended release, do not crush or chew tablets Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) on thrombolytic therapy rationale for medication
- Can be given in pts with ischemic stroke (within 3 hrs of first symptoms)
- Contraindicated in pts with a history of active bleeding or intracranial bleed
- History of stroke Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- Antiemetic
- Enhances gastric motility and accelerates gastric emptying time S/E of Metoclopramide drowsiness, fatigue, headache and anticholinergic symptoms such as dry mouth, increased heart rate, urine retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Teaching Metoclopramide
- Store in airtight, light resistant containers
- Avoid OTC preparations
- Do not consume alcohol (can intensify the sedative effect)
A client diagnosed with arterial hypertension is receiving Furosemide (Lasix). Which data indicates the medication was effective? The client's uptake is 1800 mL and the output is 2300 mL The physician writes orders for the client with diabetes mellitus. Which order would the nurse validate with the physician? Lantus insulin 20U BID Assessment finding thrombolytic therapy is effective
- Blood clot is dissolved
- No excessive bleeding is indicated
- Patient is pain free Rifampin (Rifampin) drug facts
- Antitubercular drug
- Turns body fluids orange
- Treatment up to 9 months Do not take which drug with Lisinopril
- Do not take with Spironolactone
- Can cause hyperkalemia The client diagnosed with CHF is prescribed the ACE inhibitor enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement explains the rationale for administering this medication? ACE inhibitors dilate arteries, which reduces the workload of the heart Instruct patient to do what while taking Rifampin (Rifadin)?
- use an alternative form of contraceptive
- Oral contraceptives are less effective while the pt is taking this medication Tetracycline po drug facts and client teaching
- Inhibit bacterial growth
- Should not be administered with dairy products
- Tooth discoloration will occur: the drug binds to the calcium in the teeth
- Take on an empty stomach Most dangerous adverse effect of Digoxin dysrhythmias
Albuterol (Ventolin)
- Blood in lungs picks up the drug rapidly - > quick relief of symptoms
- Stimulate sympathetic NS (fight or flight)
- When inhaled 15 to 30 mins prior to physical activity, it can prevent exercise- induced bronchospasm
- Adverse: hypokalemia (at high doses) Rosuvastatin (Crestor) works by decreasing LDL levels Adverse reaction of Rosuvastatin (Crestor) Rhabdomyolysis (Urine output of 30 mL, increased creatine kinase, calves hurt, difficult walking short distance) myopathy, hyperglycemia What would a pt benefit from while taking Rosuvastatin (Crestor)?
- Omega-3 & CoQ10 supplements
- Sardines, nuts, almonds, olive and canola oils
What patients cannot take Rosuvastatin? patients with alcoholic or viral hepatitis What drugs are most commonly used to treat dyslipidemia? HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (or statins)
- Examples: Atorvastatin (Lipitor), Fluvastatin (Lescol), Lovastatin (Mevacor), Rosuvastatin (Crestor), Simvastatin (Zocor) Which blood test is used as the initial test for suspected thyroid disease? TSH LDL = bad cholesterol Optimal lab value for LDL less than 100
- any higher is bad Optimal lab value for HDL
