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Nurs 302 Patho Midterm Quizzes 1-8 Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A set of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various topics related to pathophysiology, including chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, and cellular adaptations. It is designed to help students prepare for their midterm exam in a nursing course.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 01/27/2025

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Nurs 302 Patho Midterm Quizzes 1-8 Questions
With Complete Solutions
Evolve- Huether: Understanding Pathophysiology Quizzes 1-8
(Midterm)
An ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from
a single cell is a(n):
A) metaphase spread.
B) autosomal spread.
C) karyotype.
D) anaphase spread. correct answer: C
An error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate
during meiosis is termed:
A) aneuploidy.
B) nondisjunction.
C) polyploidy.
D) anaplasia. correct answer: B
A somatic cell that does not contain a multiple of 23
chromosomes is called:
A) an aneuploid cell.
B) a euploid cell.
C) a polyploidy cell.
D) a haploid cell. correct answer: A
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Nurs 302 Patho Midterm Quizzes 1-8 Questions

With Complete Solutions

Evolve- Huether: Understanding Pathophysiology Quizzes 1- (Midterm) An ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from a single cell is a(n): A) metaphase spread. B) autosomal spread. C) karyotype. D) anaphase spread. correct answer: C An error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis is termed: A) aneuploidy. B) nondisjunction. C) polyploidy. D) anaplasia. correct answer: B A somatic cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called: A) an aneuploid cell. B) a euploid cell. C) a polyploidy cell. D) a haploid cell. correct answer: A

A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. Which of the following describes this condition? A) Euploidy B) Triploidy C) Tetraploidy D) Aneuploidy correct answer: C If a person is a chromosomal mosaic, the person may: A) be a carrier of the genetic disease. B) have a mild form of the genetic disease. C) have two genetic diseases. D) be sterile as a result of the genetic disease. correct answer: B The most common cause of Down syndrome is: A) paternal nondisjunction. B) maternal translocations. C) maternal nondisjunction. D) paternal translocations. correct answer: C Risk factors for Down syndrome include: A) fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus. B) increased paternal age. C) family history of Down syndrome. D) pregnancy in women over age 35. correct answer: D A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. Her condition is called: A) Down syndrome.

D) recessiveness. correct answer: B Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene. A) X-linked dominant B) X-linked recessive C) autosomal dominant D) autosomal recessive correct answer: D To express a polygenic trait: A) genes must interact with the environment. B) several genes must act together. C) multiple mutations must occur in the same family. D) in situ cloning must occur. correct answer: B The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example of: A) polygenic trait. B) multifactorial trait. C) crossing over. D) recombination. correct answer: B A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease, but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child? A) 50% B) 33% C) 25% D) Impossible to determine correct answer: A

A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following? A) XY B) XX C) XYY D) XXY correct answer: D A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to cause this syndrome? A) Translocation B) Inversion C) Nondisjunction D) Duplication at fragile sites correct answer: D The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease: A) genotype. B) allele. C) phenotype. D) dominance. correct answer: C Which of the following genetic diseases manifests with progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood? A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy B) Cystic fibrosis C) Achondroplasia D) Huntington disease correct answer: D Which of the following types of genetic disorders is the most common cause of miscarriage?

A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of: A) gene imprinting. B) an autosomal recessive trait. C) an autosomal dominant trait. D) a sex-linked trait. correct answer: A Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: A) treat disease. B) protect cells from injury. C) prevent cellular aging. D) speed up cellular death. correct answer: B Cellular atrophy involves: A) an increase in cell size. B) a decrease in cell size. C) an increase in the number of cells. D) a decrease in the number of cells. correct answer: B The process of cellular atrophy is accomplished through which of the following processes? A) Loss of fluid B) Decreased cell division C) Inhibition of enzyme formation D) Formation of autophagic vacuoles correct answer: D In compensatory hyperplasia, growth factors stimulate cell division in response to: A) tissue loss. B) decreased hormonal stimulation. C) ischemia.

D) puberty. correct answer: A Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to: A) neoplasia (cancer). B) dysplasia. C) metaplasia. D) all of the above. correct answer: D In response to an increased workload, such as that caused by high blood pressure (hypertension), myocardial cells in the left ventricle will adapt through the process of: A) atrophy. B) hypertrophy. C) hyperplasia. D) dsyplasia. correct answer: B The process of muscle hypertrophy involves an increase in: A) cell division. B) water accumulation. C) protein synthesis. D) plasma membrane thickness. correct answer: C Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical: A) atrophy. B) dysplasia. C) metaplasia. D) hormonal hyperplasia. correct answer: B Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by: A) another type of cell.

A) tissue damage by antioxidants. B) radiation injury. C) tissue reperfusion following ischemia. D) enzymatic metabolism of chemicals. correct answer: A Vitamin E, vitamin C, and beta-carotene are molecules in food that act as: A) poisons. B) free radicals. C) receptor blockers. D) antioxidants. correct answer: D Lead poisoning affects nervous system function by which of the following mechanisms? A) Lead blocks oxygen delivery to the brain by binding with hemoglobin. B) Lead interferes with neurotransmitter release. C) Lead causes nervous tissue necrosis. D) Lead inhibits fatty acid oxidation in the brainstem. correct answer: B The population group most vulnerable to lead poisoning is: A) children. B) pregnant women. C) male adolescents. D) the elderly. correct answer: A Which of the following organs is most frequently affected by ethanol injury? A) Heart B) Kidneys

C) Liver D) Stomach correct answer: C Which of the following molecules accumulates in liver cells as a result of alcohol abuse? A) Water B) Fat (lipids) C) Protein D) Iron correct answer: B Fetal exposure to alcohol during pregnancy can result in: A) low birth weight. B) mental retardation. C) death. D) all of the above. correct answer: D Why is carbon monoxide exposure a life-threatening condition? A) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents normal oxygen transport to tissues. B) Inhalation of carbon monoxide interferes with oxygen diffusion in the lungs. C) Carbon monoxide causes the release of toxic amounts of iron from the tissues. D) Carbon dioxide removal from the tissues is inhibited. correct answer: A A contusion injury results in: A) tearing of the skin. B) the removal of superficial skin layers. C) entrance and exit wounds. D) bleeding in the skin or underlying tissues. correct answer: D

Total body water (TBW) in elderly persons is: A) increased because of decreased adipose tissue and decreased bone mass. B) increased because of decreased renal function and hormonal fluctuations. C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass. D) decreased because of diuresis and sodium loss. correct answer: C Which state describes the ideal proportion of electrolyte-to- water content in the body? A) Homeostatic B) Osmotic C) Cationic D) Isotonic correct answer: D Osmosis describes the movement of: A) electrolytes. B) glucose. C) water. D) blood. correct answer: C Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentrations in the intracellular fluid (ICF)? A) Sodium B) Calcium C) Magnesium D) Potassium correct answer: D

Capillary oncotic pressure is primarily determined by which of the following molecules? A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Albumin D) Water correct answer: C Starling's hypothesis describes the forces that determine: A) the intercellular concentration of electrolytes. B) the net filtration of water at the capillary membrane. C) the exchange of gases at the capillary membrane. D) the concentration of albumin in the interstitial fluid. correct answer: B Edema can result from all of the following alterations except: A) decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure. B) decreased capillary oncotic pressure. C) lymphatic obstruction. D) increased capillary membrane permeability. correct answer: A Which of the following hormones stimulates sodium excretion by the kidneys? A) Cortisol B) Aldosterone C) Natriuretic hormones(ANH) D) Antidiuretic hormone correct answer: C Increased aldosterone, as in the case of hyperaldosteronism, results in: A) decreased serum osmolarity.

C) edema. D) increased hematocrit. correct answer: D Moderate to severe hypokalemia manifests with: A) muscle spasms and rapid respirations. B) muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. C) confusion and irritability. D) vomiting and diarrhea. correct answer: B Which of the following molecules act as buffers for acid in the blood? A) Hemoglobin B) Albumin C) Bicarbonate ion D) All of the above correct answer: D What is the normal pH of the blood? A) Neutral B) Slightly acidic C) Slightly alkaline D) Very acidic correct answer: C Which of the following molecules is a volatile acid in the body? A) Lactic acid B) Ketoacids C) Carbon dioxide D) Sulfates correct answer: C A common cause of metabolic acidosis is: A) diuresis. B) dehydration.

C) vomiting. D) renal failure and diabetes. correct answer: D If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the person's pH is: A) high. B) low. C) normal. D) impossible to determine. correct answer: C Compensation for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis is accomplished by which of the following organs? A) Liver B) Skin C) Heart D) Lungs correct answer: D A common cause of metabolic alkalosis is: A) volume overload. B) hyperventilation. C) vomiting. D) ketone production. correct answer: C In general, respiratory acidosis is caused by: A) states that induce hyperventilation. B) compensation for metabolic alkalosis. C) respiratory disease causing retention of carbon dioxide. D) hormone imbalances. correct answer: C Which of the following alterations is evidence that the kidneys are compensating for a respiratory acidosis condition?

B) To transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury C) To dilute toxins D) All of the above correct answer: D The first cell to react to tissue injury is the: A) macrophage. B) mast cell. C) fibroblast. D) neutrophil correct answer: B Which of the following stimuli are known to induce mast cell degranulation? A) Thermal injury B) The presence of toxins C) Immunologic tissue injury D) All of the above correct answer: D The process of a phagocyte squeezing through retracted endothelial cells to enter into the tissues is called: A) fusion. B) diapedesis. C) phagocytosis. D) margination. correct answer: B Prior to engulfment of a bacterium during phagocytosis, which of the following events must occur? A) Release of lysosomal enzymes B) Fusion C) Recognition and adherence D) Formation of a phagolysosome correct answer: C

In addition to phagocytosis, which of the following functions are also performed by macrophages? A) Release of growth factors and stimulating new blood vessel growth B) Destroying circulating antibodies C) Inhibiting inflammation D) Promotion of blood clotting correct answer: A A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response? A) Neutrophil B) Macrophage C) Mast cell D) Fibroblast correct answer: B Cells defend against viral invasion through the production and secretion of: A) histamine. B) interferon. C) growth factors. D) prostaglandins. correct answer: B Opsonization promotes the process of: A) phagocytosis. B) vasodilation. C) increased vascular permeability. D) clotting. correct answer: A