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NURS 316B Exam 3 2025 LATEST TRUE/FALSE
EXAM REVIEW 100% ACCURATE SPRING
SUMMER EXAM CSUSM California State
University San Marcos GRADED A
The degree of heat intensity and duration of contact are irrelevant factors in burn trauma. False. Both are critical factors in burn trauma. Electrical burns can cause both internal and external injuries. True Superficial burns involve damage to the epidermis and papillary dermis. False. Superficial burns involve epithelial-only damage. Severe burns involve more than 25% TBSA for partial-thickness burns or more than 10% TBSA for full-thickness burns.
True. The Rule of Nines is used to estimate the percentage of body surface area affected by burns. True The zone of coagulation is the outermost zone of injury with minimal tissue damage. False. The zone of coagulation is the deepest point of injury with the most irreversible damage. Burns affecting more than 30% TBSA can disrupt normal organ function. True. Hypovolemic shock is a common complication of severe burns due to fluid and protein shifts. True.
Burns do not affect the immune system or increase the risk of infection. False. Burns compromise the immune system and increase infection risk. Renal complications from burns can include acute tubular necrosis due to elevated myoglobin levels. True. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) levels are used to indicate muscle damage in electrical burns. True. ARDS is the leading cause of death in severe burn injuries. True.
Hypertrophic scarring is a common complication of burn injuries. True. BPH is characterized by excessive cell growth of the prostate, particularly in the transition zone. True. BPH does not cause any urinary symptoms or complications. False. BPH causes lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) and bladder outlet obstruction (BOO). A digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are used to diagnose BPH and rule out prostate cancer. True. The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary gland, which then sends out further signals to end organs.
False. The posterior pituitary stores and releases hormones made by the hypothalamus. Hormone resistance can be caused by a decrease in the number of receptors or impaired receptor function. True Primary endocrine dysfunction originates from abnormal pituitary activity. False. Primary endocrine dysfunction originates from the endocrine gland itself. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is characterized by hypersecretion of ADH. True Rapid correction of hyponatremia is the recommended treatment for SIADH.
False. Slow correction of hyponatremia is recommended. Diabetes insipidus (DI) is characterized by insufficient ADH production, leading to polyuria and extreme thirst. True In nephrogenic DI, the kidneys respond normally to ADH. False. In nephrogenic DI, the kidneys fail to respond to ADH. Prolactinomas are the most common type of hyperpituitarism, characterized by the over-secretion of prolactin. True Acromegaly occurs when there is hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) during puberty. False. Acromegaly occurs after puberty.
Hyperlipidemia is a systemic effect of hypothyroidism due to reduced LDL receptors. True Goiter is the enlargement of the thyroid gland and may develop with low iodine levels. True Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies. True High TSH and low free T3 and T4 levels indicate primary hypothyroidism. True Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism and involves thyroid-stimulating antibodies.
True Thyroid storm is a life-threatening hypometabolic state often precipitated by surgery or trauma. False. Thyroid storm is a hypermetabolic state. Radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) test is used to diagnose Graves' disease. True. Single thyroid nodules have a higher risk of malignancy compared to multiple nodules. True. Hypoparathyroidism leads to hypocalcemia and is usually caused by parathyroid damage during thyroid surgery. True.
The adult human body has 206 bones, with a highpercentage of trabecular bone in the wrist, hip, and vertebrae True Peak bone mass is typically obtained by the age of 25 years False. Peak bone mass is obtained by 30-35 years of age. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone formation. False. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption. Pathological fractures occur when forces exceed physiological parameters. False. Pathological fractures occur in weakened bones without significant trauma. A comminuted fracture involves more than one fracture line and more than two bone fragments.
True The callus formation stage involves the deposition of lamellar bone. False. The callus formation stage precedes lamellar bone deposition. Acute compartment syndrome can be caused by constriction from a tight bandage or cast. True Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by the accumulation of myoglobin in the bloodstream, which is toxic to the kidneys. True. Prolonged use of exogenous glucocorticoids can lead to hypoadrenalism by suppressing CRF-ACTH signals. True.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) than in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). True. Ketonuria and ketonemia are diagnostic criteria for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). True. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) is more common in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) than in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). True. Extreme hyperglycemia with blood glucose levels greater than 600 mg/dL is a diagnostic criterion for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). False. This is a criterion for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS).
Rapid decrease in blood glucose levels during treatment of DKA or HHS can cause cerebral edema. True. Acute kidney injury (AKI) is characterized by a rapid decrease in kidney function, leading to azotemia and elevated creatinine levels. True. The diuresis phase of AKI is characterized by large unconcentrated urine outflow. True. Stage 3 AKI is defined by a serum creatinine level that is 1. times the baseline. False. Stage 3 AKI is defined by a serum creatinine level that is 3 or more times the baseline.
The liver receives blood supply from both the hepatic artery and the portal vein. True The liver is involved in the synthesis of angiotensinogen and thrombopoietin. True Biliverdin is converted directly to conjugated bilirubin in the liver. False. Biliverdin is converted to free or unconjugated bilirubin, which is then conjugated in the liver. Decreased deamination activity in the liver can lead to high nitrogen levels in the blood. True. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a milder form of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).
False. NASH is a more severe form of NAFLD. Biliary obstruction can cause conjugated bilirubin to accumulate in the blood, leading to jaundice. True. Caput medusa is characterized by dilated veins around the umbilical area. True. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase are specific to liver disorders. False. Elevated alkaline phosphatase can indicate liver disorders but is not specific to them. Insulin resistance is associated with increased fat storage in the liver in NAFLD. True.
