Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

NURS 612 Advanced Health Assessment Practice Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIF, Exams of Nursing

NURS 612 Advanced Health Assessment Practice Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/26/2025

Theexamwhisperer
Theexamwhisperer 🇺🇸

1.8K documents

1 / 17

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
NURS 612 Advanced Health Assessment
Practice Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY
1. Which of the following is the most accurate site for measuring core
body temperature?
a) Oral
b) Axillary
c) Rectal
d) Tympanic
Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate
reflection of core body temperature due to proximity to core
structures.
2. When assessing a patient’s lung sounds, you hear a high-pitched,
musical sound during expiration. This is most consistent with:
a) Crackles
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff

Partial preview of the text

Download NURS 612 Advanced Health Assessment Practice Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIF and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NURS 612 Advanced Health Assessment

Practice Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS

RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY

  1. Which of the following is the most accurate site for measuring core body temperature? a) Oral b) Axillary c) Rectal d) Tympanic Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate reflection of core body temperature due to proximity to core structures.
  2. When assessing a patient’s lung sounds, you hear a high-pitched, musical sound during expiration. This is most consistent with: a) Crackles

b) Wheezes c) Rhonchi d) Pleural friction rub Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds typically heard during expiration and are caused by airway narrowing.

  1. A positive Murphy’s sign indicates: a) Appendicitis b) Cholecystitis c) Gallbladder inflammation d) Pancreatitis Murphy’s sign is a test for gallbladder inflammation, elicited by pain on palpation under the right costal margin during inspiration.
  2. What cranial nerve is tested by assessing pupil constriction in response to light? a) Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) b) Cranial nerve II (optic) c) Cranial nerve IV (trochlear) d) Cranial nerve VI (abducens) The oculomotor nerve controls the pupillary constrictor muscles responsible for pupil constriction.
  3. When auscultating the carotid arteries, you hear a blowing sound during systole. This sound is known as a: a) Murmur

b) 12-20 breaths per minute c) 20-30 breaths per minute d) 30-40 breaths per minute Normal adult respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute.

  1. Which test is used to assess for meningeal irritation? a) Babinski sign b) Brudzinski’s sign c) Romberg test d) Kernig’s sign Brudzinski’s sign, along with Kernig’s, is used to detect meningeal irritation.
  2. Which heart valve is best auscultated at the second left intercostal space? a) Aortic valve b) Tricuspid valve c) Pulmonic valve d) Mitral valve The pulmonic valve is auscultated best at the second left intercostal space.
  3. The presence of jugular venous distension indicates: a) Hypovolemia b) Right-sided heart failure c) Left-sided heart failure

d) Pulmonary embolism Jugular venous distension reflects elevated central venous pressure, often due to right-sided heart failure.

  1. Which part of the stethoscope is best for hearing high-pitched breath sounds? a) Bell b) Diaphragm c) Both equally d) Neither The diaphragm of the stethoscope is best for high-pitched sounds such as breath sounds and normal heart sounds.
  2. What is the most appropriate action if you find a palpable, non- tender, mobile lymph node in the cervical region? a) Immediate biopsy b) Antibiotics c) Observation and follow-up d) Surgical excision A small, mobile, non-tender lymph node is often benign; observation is appropriate unless it changes.
  3. In assessing for carpal tunnel syndrome, which test involves tapping over the median nerve? a) Phalen’s test b) Tinel’s sign

Normal bowel sounds are intermittent, occurring about 5-30 times per minute.

  1. Which skin lesion description best fits a flat, circumscribed lesion less than 1 cm in diameter? a) Papule b) Macule c) Nodule d) Vesicle A macule is a flat, circumscribed change in skin color less than 1 cm.
  2. Which test assesses for peripheral arterial disease by comparing blood pressures in the arms and legs? a) Allen test b) Ankle-brachial index c) Ankle-brachial index d) Tinel’s test Ankle-brachial index compares systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm to assess peripheral arterial disease.
  3. When examining the eyes with a penlight, constriction of the pupil in the same eye is called: a) Consensual response b) Direct response c) Accommodation reflex d) Pupillary lag

Direct response is pupil constriction in the eye being stimulated by light.

  1. The presence of coarse, low-pitched crackles heard mainly during inspiration suggests: a) Asthma b) Pleural effusion c) Pneumonia d) Pneumothorax Coarse crackles indicate fluid in airways, common in pneumonia.
  2. The Weber test assesses: a) Air conduction b) Bone conduction c) Lateralization of sound d) Balance The Weber test helps determine if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural by lateralizing sound.
  3. What is the correct placement of the stethoscope to auscultate the mitral valve? a) Second right intercostal space b) Second left intercostal space c) Fifth intercostal space at midclavicular line d) Fourth intercostal space at left sternal border

Cranial nerve XII controls tongue movement; sticking out the tongue tests this.

  1. When assessing the skin turgor, a delayed return to normal suggests: a) Edema b) Infection c) Dehydration d) Normal aging Delayed skin turgor indicates poor skin elasticity, often due to dehydration.
  2. Which reflex is tested by stroking the lateral sole of the foot? a) Patellar reflex b) Biceps reflex c) Babinski reflex d) Achilles reflex Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the sole; extension of the big toe is abnormal in adults.
  3. Which pulse is located just medial to the biceps tendon at the antecubital fossa? a) Radial pulse b) Femoral pulse c) Brachial pulse d) Popliteal pulse

The brachial pulse is palpated medial to the biceps tendon in the antecubital fossa.

  1. Which part of the neurological exam assesses proprioception? a) Light touch b) Pain sensation c) Position sense d) Vibration sense Proprioception refers to the awareness of body position, tested by position sense.
  2. Which symptom is classic for Parkinson’s disease? a) Muscle weakness b) Sensory loss c) Resting tremor d) Babinski sign A resting tremor is characteristic of Parkinson’s disease.
  3. A bruit heard over the abdominal aorta suggests: a) Normal blood flow b) Possible abdominal aortic aneurysm c) Venous thrombosis d) Portal hypertension A bruit in the abdominal aorta suggests turbulent blood flow, possibly from an aneurysm.

c) Hyperresonant d) Tympanic Hyperresonance is heard over lungs with increased air, as in emphysema.

  1. What is the expected finding when percussing over the stomach? a) Dullness b) Tympany c) Tympany d) Flatness Tympany is the normal percussion note over the stomach due to air in the stomach.
  2. Which of the following is a sign of meningeal irritation? a) Negative Brudzinski’s sign b) Positive Kernig’s sign c) Positive Babinski sign d) Negative Romberg test Kernig’s sign is positive when there is resistance and pain on knee extension with hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation.
  3. What is the significance of a delayed capillary refill time (> seconds)? a) Normal finding b) Hypervolemia

c) Possible poor peripheral perfusion d) Infection Delayed capillary refill suggests impaired peripheral circulation or hypovolemia.

  1. The presence of clubbing in the fingers is most commonly associated with: a) Anemia b) Chronic hypoxia c) Diabetes d) Acute infection Clubbing results from chronic hypoxia and is seen in chronic lung and heart diseases.
  2. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the gag reflex? a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX and CN X d) CN XII Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X) nerves mediate the gag reflex.
  3. What type of headache is characterized by unilateral, pulsating pain accompanied by nausea and photophobia? a) Tension headache b) Migraine headache c) Cluster headache
  1. The ankle jerk reflex tests which spinal nerve roots? a) L2-L b) L3-L c) S1-S d) L4-L The Achilles reflex (ankle jerk) tests S1 and S2 nerve roots.
  2. What is the normal capillary refill time? a) <1 second b) <2 seconds c) <2 seconds d) >3 seconds Normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds.
  3. Which of the following percussion findings is typical of pneumonia? a) Hyperresonance b) Dullness c) Tympany d) Flatness Dullness is heard over areas of lung consolidation in pneumonia.
  4. Which neurological test is used to assess balance and proprioception? a) Babinski test b) Romberg test

c) Romberg test d) Kernig’s test Romberg test assesses balance by having the patient stand with eyes closed.

  1. The most appropriate next step if a patient has absent breath sounds in one lung and sudden shortness of breath is: a) Order chest x-ray b) Prepare for emergency needle decompression c) Prescribe bronchodilators d) Administer oxygen only Absent breath sounds with sudden dyspnea may indicate tension pneumothorax requiring emergency decompression.