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Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics
Practice Exam 2 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2025 Maryville University
- Which class of drugs is most appropriate as first-line treatment for hypertension in a non-Black adult with no comorbidities? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. Alpha-blockers D. Loop diuretics ACE inhibitors are recommended as first-line agents in non-Black adults without comorbid conditions due to their renal protective benefits and effectiveness in lowering blood pressure.
- A patient with asthma is prescribed propranolol. What is the primary concern? A. Weight gain
B. Bronchospasm C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypoglycemia Non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol can cause bronchospasm and exacerbate asthma symptoms.
- Which antibiotic is safe to prescribe during pregnancy? A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Amoxicillin D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Amoxicillin is considered safe in pregnancy, while other options can pose risks to fetal development.
- Which laboratory test is essential before initiating statin therapy? A. CBC B. Liver function tests C. TSH D. Renal panel Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, so baseline liver function tests are necessary before initiation.
- Metformin should be avoided in patients with which condition? A. Obesity B. Hypertension C. Osteoarthritis
Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that begins working within 15 minutes.
- A patient taking warfarin reports bleeding gums. What should be done first? A. Increase warfarin dose B. Check INR C. Prescribe vitamin K D. Stop all medications An elevated INR could indicate over-anticoagulation; the INR should be checked first.
- Which medication is used for opioid overdose? A. Flumazenil B. Naltrexone C. Naloxone D. Methadone Naloxone is a rapid-acting opioid antagonist used in overdose situations.
- Which class of drugs should not be used in a patient taking sildenafil? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta-blockers C. Nitrates D. ACE inhibitors
Nitrates with sildenafil can cause profound hypotension due to synergistic vasodilation.
- Which antimicrobial is associated with tendon rupture? A. Amoxicillin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Azithromycin D. Doxycycline Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin have been linked to tendonitis and tendon rupture.
- What is the preferred treatment for acute gout attack? A. Allopurinol B. Colchicine C. Probenecid D. Febuxostat Colchicine is used to reduce inflammation during an acute gout flare.
- What should be monitored when a patient is taking spironolactone? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. BUN Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia.
B. Depression C. Pregnancy D. Diabetes Isotretinoin is teratogenic and absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy.
- Which drug class is associated with angioedema? A. Beta-blockers B. ARBs C. ACE inhibitors D. Calcium channel blockers ACE inhibitors can cause angioedema, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect.
- Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism? A. Levothyroxine B. Liothyronine C. Methimazole D. Iodine- 131 Methimazole is a first-line antithyroid agent used to manage hyperthyroidism.
- Which of the following drugs is a first-generation antihistamine? A. Loratadine B. Diphenhydramine C. Cetirizine
D. Fexofenadine Diphenhydramine is a sedating first-generation antihistamine.
- What is a key side effect of lithium therapy? A. Hypocalcemia B. Tremors C. Hypertension D. Weight loss Lithium commonly causes tremors, especially at higher levels.
- What condition can develop from long-term PPI use? A. Hyperkalemia B. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia Proton pump inhibitors can interfere with B12 absorption, leading to deficiency.
- What is the preferred treatment for Clostridioides difficile infection? A. Ceftriaxone B. Oral vancomycin C. Metronidazole IV D. Ciprofloxacin Oral vancomycin is effective for treating C. difficile infections.
C. Insulin glargine D. NPH Insulin glargine provides basal insulin coverage for 24 hours.
- What is a common side effect of niacin? A. Constipation B. Flushing C. Bradycardia D. Tinnitus Flushing is a well-known side effect of niacin, especially at high doses.
- What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose? A. Vitamin K B. Naloxone C. N-acetylcysteine D. Flumazenil N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and protects the liver in acetaminophen overdose.
- Which medication is most appropriate for treating neuropathic pain? A. Ibuprofen B. Gabapentin C. Acetaminophen
D. Oxycodone Gabapentin is effective in treating neuropathic pain due to its action on calcium channels in the CNS.
- A common adverse effect of amiodarone is: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Hyperglycemia Amiodarone is associated with serious pulmonary toxicity, including pulmonary fibrosis.
- Which class of drugs is contraindicated with MAO inhibitors? A. SSRIs B. Antacids C. Tyramine-containing foods D. Diuretics Tyramine-containing foods can cause hypertensive crisis when combined with MAOIs.
- What is a potential side effect of chronic corticosteroid use? A. Hypernatremia B. Osteoporosis C. Bradycardia D. Leukopenia
Alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin relax the smooth muscle in the bladder neck, improving urine flow in BPH.
- Which adverse effect is associated with pioglitazone? A. Weight loss B. Fluid retention C. Hypoglycemia D. Nephrotoxicity Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, can cause fluid retention and may worsen heart failure.
- What is the mechanism of action of albuterol? A. Beta-1 antagonist B. Beta-2 agonist C. Muscarinic blocker D. Leukotriene antagonist Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle.
- Which of the following medications can cause gingival hyperplasia? A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Lisinopril D. Phenytoin
Phenytoin commonly causes gingival overgrowth, especially in children and adolescents.
- A patient taking isoniazid should also take which supplement to prevent neuropathy? A. Vitamin D B. Iron C. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) D. Folic acid Vitamin B6 prevents peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid.
- Which medication is used in the treatment of absence seizures? A. Carbamazepine B. Phenytoin C. Ethosuximide D. Gabapentin Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treating absence seizures.
- Which lab value should be monitored with enoxaparin therapy? A. PT/INR B. Bleeding time C. aPTT D. Platelet count Enoxaparin may cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), so platelet counts should be monitored.
- What is the mechanism of action of zolpidem (Ambien)? A. Melatonin receptor agonist B. SSRI C. GABA-A receptor agonist D. Dopamine antagonist Zolpidem acts on GABA-A receptors, enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission to promote sleep.
- Which class of drugs should be avoided in a patient with sulfa allergy? A. Macrolides B. Tetracyclines C. Thiazide diuretics D. Penicillins Thiazide diuretics contain a sulfonamide moiety and may cross-react in sulfa-allergic individuals.
- Which is a potential adverse effect of using long-term NSAIDs? A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Hypokalemia C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Tachycardia NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which can compromise the gastric mucosa and cause ulcers.
- What medication is used for alcohol dependence to reduce cravings? A. Disulfiram B. Benzodiazepines C. Naltrexone D. Acamprosate Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that reduces the pleasurable effects of alcohol and decreases cravings.
