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NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING PRACTICE TEST BANK, Exams of Nursing

Northwest Nazarene University (NNU)Nursing

SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it influenced what is nursing today. 1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the: A. PNA B. ANA C. Nightingale D. Henderson 2. Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an expanded career role for nurses? A. Nurse practitioner C. Nurse Researcher B. Clinical nurse specialist D. Nurse anaesthesiologist 3. The Board of Nursing regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance of the quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties of the board of nursin the following

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NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING PRACTICE

SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it

influenced what is nursing today.

1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury,

alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the

individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the:

A. PNA B. ANA C. Nightingale D. Henderson

2. Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an

expanded career role for nurses?

A. Nurse practitioner C. Nurse Researcher

B. Clinical nurse specialist D. Nurse anaesthesiologist

3. The Board of Nursing regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance of the

quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties of the board of nursing are the following, EXCEPT:

A. Issue, suspend, revoke certificates of registration

B. Issue subpoena duces tecum, ad testificandum

C. Open and close colleges of nursing

D. Supervise and regulate the practice of nursing

4. A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real situations to make judgments

about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise?

A. Novice B. Newbie C. Advanced Beginner D. Competent

5. Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different from the other levels in nursing expertise in the context of having:

A. the ability to organize and plan activities

B. having attained an advanced level of education

C. a holistic understanding and perception of the client

D. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations

SITUATION: The nurse has been asked to administer an injection via Z TRACK technique. Questions 6 to 10 refer to this.

6. The nurse prepares an IM injection for an adult client using the Z track technique. 4 ml of medication is to be

administered to the client. Which of the following site will you choose?

A. Deltoid B. Rectus femoris C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis

1

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NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING PRACTICE

SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it influenced what is nursing today.

Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the: A. PNA B. ANA C. Nightingale D. Henderson
Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an expanded career role for nurses? A. Nurse practitioner C. Nurse Researcher B. Clinical nurse specialist D. Nurse anaesthesiologist
The Board of Nursing regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance of the quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties of the board of nursing are the following, EXCEPT: A. Issue, suspend, revoke certificates of registration B. Issue subpoena duces tecum, ad testificandum C. Open and close colleges of nursing D. Supervise and regulate the practice of nursing
A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real situations to make judgments about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise? A. Novice B. Newbie C. Advanced Beginner D. Competent
Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different from the other levels in nursing expertise in the context of having: A. the ability to organize and plan activities B. having attained an advanced level of education C. a holistic understanding and perception of the client D. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations SITUATION: The nurse has been asked to administer an injection via Z TRACK technique. Questions 6 to 10 refer to this.
The nurse prepares an IM injection for an adult client using the Z track technique. 4 ml of medication is to be administered to the client. Which of the following site will you choose? A. Deltoid B. Rectus femoris C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis

In infants 1 year old and below, which of the following is the site of choice for intramuscular Injection? A. Deltoid B. Rectus femoris C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis
In order to decrease discomfort in Z track administration, which of the following is applicable? A. Pierce the skin quickly and smoothly at a 90 degree angle B. Inject the medication steadily at around 10 minutes per millilitre C. Pull back the plunger and aspirate for 1 minute to make sure that the needle did not hit a blood vessel D. Pierce the skin slowly and carefully at a 90 degree angle
After injection using the Z track technique, the nurse should know that she needs to wait for a few seconds before withdrawing the needle and this is to allow the medication to disperse into the muscle tissue, thus decreasing the client’s discomfort. How many seconds should the nurse wait before withdrawing the needle? A. 2 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 15 seconds
The rationale in using the Z track technique in an intramuscular injection is: A. It decreases the leakage of discolouring and irritating medication into the subcutaneous tissues B. It will allow a faster absorption of the medication C. The Z track technique prevent irritation of the muscle D. It is much more convenient for the nurse SITUATION: A Client was rushed to the emergency room and you are his attending nurse. You are performing a vital sign assessment.
All of the following are correct methods in assessment of the blood pressure EXCEPT: A. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison B. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff’s sound C. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated D. Observe procedures for infection control
You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to: A. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion B. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion C. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medications D. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
After a few hours in the Emergency Room, The client is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:

An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care? A. lemon glycerine C. Mineral oil B. hydrogen peroxide D. Normal saline solution
When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs? A. Put the client on a sidelying position with head of bed lowered B. Keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin C. Wash hands and observe appropriate infection control D. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression
The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth B. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate the buccal mucosa C. improves client’s appearance and self-confidence D. improves appetite and taste of food
A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by: A. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid rinsing the buccal cavity B. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs C. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips and ums D. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity
Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended for the client and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using: A. salt solution C. petroleum jelly B. water D. mentholated ointment Situation – Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of the nurse.
To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchoscopy, you should instruct him to practice which of the following prior to the procedure? A. Clenching his fist every 2 minutes B. Breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth open C. Tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back D. Holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds
Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Fernan should be noted as a possible complication: A. Nausea and vomiting

B. Shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor C. Blood tinged sputum and coughing D. Sore throat and hoarseness

Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed Fernan to: A. Exercise the neck muscles C. Refrain from coughing and talking B. Breathe deeply D. Clear his throat
Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of pleural fluid. As a nurse your most important function during the procedure is to: A. Keep the sterile equipment from contamination B. Assist the physician C. Open and close the three-way stopcock D. Observe the patient’s vital signs
Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is most appropriate intervention? A. Instruct the patient not to cough or deep breathe for two hours B. Observe for symptoms of tightness of chest or bleeding C. Place an ice pack to the puncture site D. Remove the dressing to check for bleeding Situation: Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and the functions of the electrolytes is necessary to determine appropriate intervention and nursing actions.
A client with diabetes milletus has a blood glucose level of 644 mg/dL. The nurse interprets that this client is at most risk for the development of which type of acid-base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood gas analysis gives the following results: pH 7.48, PCO2 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has which acid base disturbance? A. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse ensures that which of the following has been performed or tested before the ABG specimens are drawn? A. Guthrie test C. Romberg’s test B. Allen’s test D. Weber’s test
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client and notes that the ph is 7.31, Pco2 is 50 mmHg, and the bicarbonate is 27 mEq/L. The nurse concludes that which acid base disturbance is present in this client? A. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order includes “daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory”. Eileen has a foley catheter attached to a urinary drainage system. How will you collect the urine specimen? A. remove urine from drainage tube with sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from the syringe into the specimen container B. empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container C. disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from catheter into the specimen container. D. disconnect the drainage the from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from the catheter into the specimen container.
Where would the nurse tape Eileen’s indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation? A. to the patient’s inner thigh C. to the patient’ buttocks B. to the patient’s lower thigh D. to the patient lower abdomen
Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet? A. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea B. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits and vegetables C. white chicken sandwich, vegetable salad and tea D. canned soup, potato salad, and diet soda
How will you prevent ascending infection to Eileen who has an indwelling catheter? A. see to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine B. change he catheter every eight hours C. see to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine D. clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area Situation: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is necessary.
Somatocrinin or the Growth hormone releasing hormone is secreted by the: A. Hypothalamus C. Posterior pituitary gland B. Anterior pituitary gland D. Thyroid gland
All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except: A. Somatotropin/Growth hormone C. Thyroid stimulating hormone

B. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone

All of the following hormones are hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except: A. Vasopressin C. Anti diuretic hormone B. Oxytocin D. Growth hormone
Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the: A. Thyroid gland C. Parathyroid gland B. Hypothalamus D. Anterior pituitary gland
While Parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the: A. Thyroid gland C. Parathyroid gland B. Hypothalamus D. Anterior pituitary gland Situation: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to “brainstorm” and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do health education classes.
The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of A. in service education process B. efficient management of human resources C. increasing human resources D. primary prevention
When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra A. makes the assignment to teach the staff member B. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks C. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide D. most know how to perform task delegated
Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse supervisor should A. empathize with the nurse and listen to her B. tell her to take the day off C. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job D. ask about her family life

A. The RN must supervise all delegated tasks B. After a task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN C. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the delegate D. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary only if the assistive personnel is not trustworthy Situation: When creating your lesson plan for cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to include the risk factors of stroke.

The most important risk factor is: A. Cigarette smoking C. binge drinking B. Hypertension D. heredity
Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on cause are the following EXCEPT: A. Embolic stroke C. diabetic stroke B. Hemorrhagic stroke D. thrombotic stroke
Hemmorhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the person is active. All are causes of hemorrhage, EXCEPT: A. phlebitis C. damage to blood vessel B. trauma D. aneurysm
The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is closely linked to this? A. Amphetamines C. shabu B. Cocaine D. Demerol
A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk factor of stroke. Your best response is: A. “More red blood cells thicken blood and make clots more possible.” B. “Increased RBC count is linked to high cholesterol.” C. “More red blood cell increases hemoglobin content.” D. “High RBC count increases blood pressure.” Situation: Recognition of normal values is vital in assessment of clients with various disorders.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of severe dehydration. The nurse would expect the hematocrit level for this client to be which of the following? A. 60% B. 47% C. 45% D. 32%

A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5. mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? A. ST depression C. Prominent U wave B. Inverted T wave D. Tall peaked T waves
A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 3. mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? A. U waves C. Elevated T waves B. Absent P waves D. Elevated ST Segment
Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the result of the blood examination are back. On reviewing the result the nurse notices which of the following as abnormal finding? A. Neutrophils 60% B. White blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 39 mm/hr D. Iron 75 mg/100 ml
Which of the following laboratory test result indicate presence of an infectious process? A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/hr B. White blood cells (WBC) 18,000/mm C. Iron 90 g/100ml D. Neutrophils 67% Situation: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. Questions 66 to 70 refer to this.
Which of the following is a finding that the nurse will be able to assess in a client with Pleural effusion? A. Reduced or absent breath sound at the base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachpynea and shortness of breath B. Hypoxemia, hypercapnea and respiratory acidosis C. Noisy respiration, crackles, stridor and wheezing D. Tracheal deviation towards the affected side, increased fremitus and loud breath sounds
Thoracentesis is performed to the client with effusion. The nurse knows that the removal of fluid should be slow. Rapid removal of fluid in thoracentesis might cause: A. Pneumothorax C. Cardiovascular collapse B. Pleurisy or Pleuritis D. Hypertension

A. Hospitals B. Community C. Workplace D. All of the above

This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic payment. A. Health Maintenance Organization B. Medicare C. Philippine Health Insurance Act D. Hospital Maintenance Organization Situation: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation arises, so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making.
The purpose of having a nurses’ code of ethics is: A. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice B. dentify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations C. To help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses D. To define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses, clients
The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and the health professionals is referred to as: A. Morality B. Religion C. Values D. Bioethics
A subjective feeling about what is right or wrong is said to be: A. Morality B. Religion C. Values D. Bioethics
Values are said to be the enduring believe about a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If Values are going to be a part of a research, this is categorized under: A. Qualitative C. Experimental B. Quantitative D. Non Experimental
The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:

A. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound B. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair C. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team D. Be accountable for his or her own actions

Why is there an ethical dilemma? A. the choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong B. a clients legal right co-exist with the nurse’s professional obligation C. decisions has to be made based on societal norms. D. decisions has to be mad quickly, often under stressful conditions
According to the code of ethics, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse? A. Assist towards peaceful death B. Health is a fundamental right C. Promotion of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering and restoration of health D. Preservation of health at all cost
Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses? A. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited professional organization was given the privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of Nursing promulgated B. Code for Nurses was first formulated in 1982 published in the Proceedings of the Third Annual Convention of the PNA House of Delegates C. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professions in the Philippines D. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics.
Violation of the code of ethics might equate to the revocation of the nursing license. Who revokes the license? A. PRC B. PNA C. DOH D. BON
Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing responsibility and accountability? A. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender B. The privilege of being a registered professional nurses C. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual D. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes Situation: As a profession, nursing is dynamic and its practice is directed by various theoretical models. To demonstrate caring behaviour, the nurse applies various nursing models in providing quality nursing care.

A. Research C. Legal documentation B. Nursing Audit D. Vehicle for communication

POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. One of its unique features is SOAPIE charting. The P in SOAPIE charting should include: A. Prescription of the doctor to the patient’s illness B. Plan of care for patient C. Patient’s perception of one’s illness D. Nursing problem and Nursing diagnosis
The medical records that are organized into separate section from doctors or nurses has more disadvantages than advantages. This is classified as what type of recording? A. POMR C. Modified POMR B. SOAPIE D. SOMR
Which of the following is the advantage of SOMR or Traditional recording? A. Increases efficiency in data gathering B. Reinforces the use of the nursing process C. The care giver can easily locate proper section for making charting entries D. Enhances effective communication among health care team members Situation: June is a 24 year old client with symptoms of dyspnea, absent breath sounds on the right lung and chest x ray revealed pleural effusion. The physician will perform thoracentesis.
Thoracentesis is useful in treating all of the following pulmonary disorders except: A. Hemothorax C. Hydrothorax B. Tuberculosis D. Empyema
Which of the following psychological preparation is not relevant for him? A. Telling him that the gauge of the needle and anesthesia to be used B. Telling him to keep still during the procedure to facilitate the insertion of the needle in the correct place C. Allow June to express his feelings and concerns D. Physician’s explanation on the purpose of the procedure and how it will be done
Before thoracentesis, the legal consideration you must check is: A. Consent is signed by the client B. Medicine preparation is correct C. Position of the client is correct D. Consent is signed by relative and physician
As a nurse, you know that the position for June before thoracentesis is:

A. Orthopneic C. Low fowlers B. Knee-chest D. Sidelying position on the affected side

Which of the following anaesthetics drug is used for thoracentesis? A. Procaine 2% C. Demerol 75 mg B. Valium 250 mg D. Phenobartbital 50 mg NURSING PRACTICE II Situation: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for 6 months. She consults you for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant.
She wants to know the length of her menstrual cycle. Her previous menstrual period is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21. Which of the following number of days will be your correct response? A. 29 B. 28 C. 30 D. 31
You advised her to observe and record the signs of Ovulation. Which of the following signs will she likely note down?
A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body temperature
Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear
One pound increase in weight
Mittelschmerz A. 1,2,4 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,
You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature everyday, which of the following instructions is incorrect? A. If coitus has occurred, this should be reflected in the chart B. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a drop in BBT to become pregnant C. Temperature should be taken immediately after waking and before getting out of bed D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT? A. Estrogen C. Gonadotropine B. Progesterone D. Follicle stimulating hormone
The following month, Mariah suspects she is pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human chorionic gonadotrophin. Which structure produces Hcg? A. Pituitary gland B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo C. Uterine deciduas

B. Mamarche D. Menarche

Kevin, Susan’s husband tells you that he is considering vasectomy After the birth of their new child. Vasectomy involves the incision of which organ? A. The testes C. The epididymis B. The vas deferens D. The scrotum
On examination, Susan has been found of having a cystocele. A cystocele is: A. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold B. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina C. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall
Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. She told you she had coitus on days 8, 10, 15 and 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is the day on which she is most likely to conceive? A. 8th^ day C. Day 15 B. 10th^ day D. Day 20
While talking with Susan, 2 new patients arrived and they are covered with large towels and the nurse noticed that there are many cameraman and news people outside of the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse noticed that both of them are still nude and the male client’s penis is still inside the female client’s vagina and the male client said that “I can’t pull it”. Vaginismus was your first impression. You know that The psychological cause of Vaginismus is related to: A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal closure B. The penis was too large that is why the vagina triggered it’s defense to attempt to close it C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views sex as bad or sinful Situation: Overpopulation is one problem in the Philippines that causes economic drain. Most Filipinos are against in legalizing abortion. As a nurse, Mastery of contraception is needed to contribute to the society and economic growth.
Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you she wants to use fertility awareness method of contraception. How will she determine her fertile days? A. She will notice that she feels hot, as if she has an elevated temperature. B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin, copious, clear and watery. C. She should monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying D. She should assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air
Dana chooses to use COC as her family planning method. What is the danger sign of COC you would ask her to report? A. A stuffy or runny nose C. Slight weight gain

B. Arthritis like symptoms D. Migraine headache

Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and she asks, how long will these implants be effective. Your best answer is: A. One month C. Five years B. Twelve months D. 10 years
Dana asks about female condoms. Which of the following is true with regards to female condoms? A. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weight gain B. She should insert the condom before any penile penetration C. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use D. Female condoms, unlike male condoms, are reusable
Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What makes her a good candidate for GIFT? A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can be implanted on them B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule out RH incompatibility C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected through the cervix into it D. Her husband is taking sildenafil, so all sperms will be motile Situation : Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group.
Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer? A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked. C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go.
The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when: A. A woman has no uterus B. A woman has no children C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year D. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months
Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because: A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen C. The ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen

NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING PRACTICE TEST BANK, Exams of Nursing

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NURSING PRACTICE I: FOUNDATION OF NURSING PRACTICE