Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards Exam 2025: Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A collection of questions and answers related to the orthotics and prosthetics combined written boards exam. It covers various topics, including anatomy, biomechanics, gait analysis, and common orthopedic conditions. The document can be a valuable resource for students preparing for the exam, offering insights into the types of questions they may encounter.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 02/25/2025

drillmaster
drillmaster 🇺🇸

5

(5)

837 documents

1 / 101

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards
exam 2025 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
A. Knee extension
a complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects what motion?
A. knee extension
B. hip adduction
c. hip extension
d. knee flexion
e. ankle plantarflexion
the femoral nerve
what is the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus?
Iliopsoas
what is the primary flexor of the hip?
common peroneal nerve
paralytic equinus during swing phase is often caused by injury to what nerve?
Equinus deformity
toe is in a down position, dorsiflexion limitation of the ankle
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39
pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f
pf40
pf41
pf42
pf43
pf44
pf45
pf46
pf47
pf48
pf49
pf4a
pf4b
pf4c
pf4d
pf4e
pf4f
pf50
pf51
pf52
pf53
pf54
pf55
pf56
pf57
pf58
pf59
pf5a
pf5b
pf5c
pf5d
pf5e
pf5f
pf60
pf61
pf62
pf63
pf64

Partial preview of the text

Download Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards Exam 2025: Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards

exam 2025 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED

A. Knee extension

a complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects what motion?

A. knee extension

B. hip adduction

c. hip extension

d. knee flexion

e. ankle plantarflexion

the femoral nerve

what is the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus?

Iliopsoas

what is the primary flexor of the hip?

common peroneal nerve

paralytic equinus during swing phase is often caused by injury to what nerve?

Equinus deformity

toe is in a down position, dorsiflexion limitation of the ankle

heel strike on one limb and a subsequent heel strike on the ipsilateral side

what is a cycle of gait defined as?

C. Line of progression

toe in or toe out is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the:

A. subtalar joint

B. ankle joint axis

C. line of progression

D. Knee axis

subtalar joint

what joint do the motions of inversion and eversion occur primarily at?

talus, tibia, fibula

what bones make up the talocrural joint?

dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

essentially a hinge type joint

what motion occurs in the talocrural joint?

the anterior talar head and the concavity on the navicular

what makes up the talonavicular joint?

the anterior facet of the calcaneus and the posterior cuboid

what makes up the calcaneocuboid joint?

midtarsal joints (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid)

what are the Chopart joints?

tarsometatarsal joints

what are the Lisfranc joints?

1st metatarsal and medial cuneiform

what makes up the medial column of the tarsometatarsal joints?

2nd and 3rd metatarsal and intermediate and lateral cuneiforms

what makes up the middle column of the tarsometatarsal joints?

4th and 5th metatarsals and the cuboid

what makes up the lateral tarsometatarsal joints?

inversion and eversion, dorsiflexion an plantar flexion

what motions are produced at the subtalar joint?

inversion and eversion. flexion and extension

what motions are produced at the midtarsal joint?

flexion and extension, abduction and adduction

what motions are produced at the metatarsalphalangeal joints?

flexion and extension

what motions are produced at the IP joints?

D. shortened step length on contralateral side

a complete lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg will result in what gait deviations?

A. foot slap on ipsilateral side

B. gluteus medius limp on contralateral side

C. Shortened step length on ipsilateral side

what is the C7 myotome

thumb extension, finger flexion

what is the C8 myotome

finger abduction and adduction

what is the T1 myotome

hip flexion

what is the L2 myotome

knee extension

what is the L3 myotome

ankle DF

what is the L4 myotome

great toe extension

what is the L5 myotome

PF, eversion, hip extension

what is the S1 myotome

knee flexion, PF

what is the S2 myotome

Scheuermann's Disease

a developmental disorder of the spine

abnormal growth of the thoracic spine

anterior portion of the thoracic vertebrae do not develop as fast as the posterior portion resulting in exaggerated kyphosis

Blount's disease (osteochondrosis deformans tibiae)

  • growth disorder of the tibia
  • characterized by inward bowing of the lower leg that worsens over time
  • tibia vara

Leg-Calve-Perthes Disease

  • avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head resulting from compromise of the tenuous blood supply to this area

C. 10 degrees of varus or valgus, 20 degrees of anterior posterior angulation

what is the maximum acceptable malalignment of a tibial fracture that can be managed with an off the shelf fracture orthosis?

A. 5 degrees of valgus/varus, 30 degrees of anterior-posterior angulation

B. no more than 5 degrees of varus/valgus, 10 degrees of AP angulation

C. 10 degrees of varus/valgus, 20 degrees of AP angulation

D. 10 degrees of valgus, 30 degrees of AP angulation

A few degrees of relative DF

for most patients with paraplegia to stand in KAFOs they must be allowed to rest on their iliofemoral ligaments. In order to facilitate this posture, how should the tibias be posistioned sagittally in relationship to the ground?

osteogenesis imperfecta

congenital osteoporosis, along with fractures before and during birth is indicative of which condition

arthrogryposis

  • non-progressive condition characterized by multiple joint contractures and involves muscle weakness
  • found at birth
  • most common form is amyoplasia (hands, wrist, elbows, shoulders, feet, hips and knees are affected)
  • severe conditions involve the jaw and spine

spina bifida

  • birth defect that occurs when the spine and the spinal cord don't form properly
  • neural tube defects

spina bifida occulta

  • mildest form of spina bifida
  • results in a small separation or gap in one or more vertebrae
  • many pts dont even know they have it
  • typically no signs or symptoms due to no nerve involvement
  • may see hair/tuft, dimple, or birthmark above the spinal defect

meningocele

form of spina bifida where the protective membranes around the spinal cord push out through the opening of the vertebrae forming a sac filled with fluid

  • the sac does not contain nerves so damage to the spinal cord are less likely (later complications are possible)

myelomeningocele

  • most severe form of spina bifida

spinal canal is open along several vertebrae in the lower or middle back

  • membranes and spinal nerves push through an opening at birth forming a sac on the baby's back (typically exposing tissues and nerves)
  • prone to life threatening infections

B. a lateral heel wedge

C. a Thomas heel

D. a medial heel wedge

Thomas heel

a shoe correction used to bring the heel into varus and prevent depression in the region of the head of the talus

D. a heel lift

which of the following shoe modifications is most likely to be used for a fixed equinus deformity?

A. a cushioned heel

B. a thomas heel

C. a reverse heel

D. a heel lift

half the distance betwee the adductor tubercle and the medial tibial plateau

what is the correct location for the mechanical knee joint on a KAFO

unreliable family support, poor upper extremity strength, obesity, 20 degree hip flexion contractures

what are some contrindications for a RGO?

relive the metatarsal heads; elevate the transverse arch

metatarsal pads function to _____ as well as _____.

D. DF stop

which of the following ankle joint controls would be indicated for a patient with paralysis of the plantarflexors

A. DF assist

B. PF stop

C. PF assist

D. DF stop

A. 25mm proximal, 12mm anterior

in relation to the apex of the great trochanter, where is the mechanical hip joint located?

A. 25mm proximal, 12mm anterior

B. 25mm proximal, 12mm posterior

C. 25mm anterior, 12mm proximal

D. 25mm lateral, 12mm distal

femoral nerve

what nerve innervates the quadriceps?

L2-L

A. 103 mm

B. 100 mm

C. 94 mm

D. 83 mm

Genurecurvatum, coronal instability of the knee

what are some contraindications for a floor reaction AFO?

D. A and B

a patient with an inferior lumbar myelomeningocele may develop hip flexion contractures due to:

A. lack of hip extensors to act as antagonists

B. parental non-compliance with home stretching programs

C. good knee extension

D. A and B

C. between the stirrup and the sole

when putting a heel wedge on a shoe (in conjunction with a conventional AFO) to address a flexible varus hindfoot, the wedge should be placed:

A. between the stirrup and heel of the shoe

B. between the shank and the sole

C. between the stirrup and the sole

D. below the heel of the shoe

UCBL

  • stabilizes subtalar and tarsal joints in stance
  • treats rear foot valgus/varus and flexible pes planus

arthritic ankle/foot

rigid foot

what are some contraindications of a UCBL

DAFO

  • dynamic
  • stabilize subtalar and tarsal joints
  • treats flexible pes planus, mild/modertate spastic diplegia/hemiplegia CP or hypotonic CP

rigid foot

what is a contraindication of a DAFO

Supramalleolar (SMO)

  • dynamic
  • stabilize subtalar and tarsal joints in stance
  • prepositions foot for IC by heel

mod/severe hypertonicity

what is a contraindication of a carbon AFO?

Neuroorthosis

  • dynamic
  • assist in limb clearance in swing
  • prepositions foot for IC by heel
  • treats DF weakness/low tone
  • e-stim treatment

flaccid paralysis and intolerance to e-stim

what are contrainindications for neuro-orthoses

AAFO

  • dynamic
  • assist in limb clearance in swing
  • prepositions foot for IC by heel
  • permits advancement of tibia in stance
  • treats impaired motor control of ankle musculature
  • indicated for potential reocver of neuromotor funtion

LMN paralysis (flaccidity) or hypotonicity as primary problem

what is a contraindication for an AAFO

SAFO

  • static
  • controls ankle positions throughout stance
  • provides stance phase stability via ankle-knee coupling
  • assists in limb clearance during swing
  • prepositions foot for IC by heel
  • distal trimline behind met heads or full toe-plate
  • treats significant hypertonicity with seriously impaired motor control at he ankle and knee
  • basis for KAFO and HKAFO

LMN paralsis (flaccidity) or hypotonicity as primary problem

what is a contraindication for a SAFO

GRAFO

  • static
  • provides stability in stance via knee-ankle coupling
  • controls ankle position throughout stance

treats weakness or impaired motor control at knee and ankle