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Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards
exam 2025 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
A. Knee extension
a complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects what motion?
A. knee extension
B. hip adduction
c. hip extension
d. knee flexion
e. ankle plantarflexion
the femoral nerve
what is the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus?
Iliopsoas
what is the primary flexor of the hip?
common peroneal nerve
paralytic equinus during swing phase is often caused by injury to what nerve?
Equinus deformity
toe is in a down position, dorsiflexion limitation of the ankle
heel strike on one limb and a subsequent heel strike on the ipsilateral side
what is a cycle of gait defined as?
C. Line of progression
toe in or toe out is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the:
A. subtalar joint
B. ankle joint axis
C. line of progression
D. Knee axis
subtalar joint
what joint do the motions of inversion and eversion occur primarily at?
talus, tibia, fibula
what bones make up the talocrural joint?
dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
essentially a hinge type joint
what motion occurs in the talocrural joint?
the anterior talar head and the concavity on the navicular
what makes up the talonavicular joint?
the anterior facet of the calcaneus and the posterior cuboid
what makes up the calcaneocuboid joint?
midtarsal joints (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid)
what are the Chopart joints?
tarsometatarsal joints
what are the Lisfranc joints?
1st metatarsal and medial cuneiform
what makes up the medial column of the tarsometatarsal joints?
2nd and 3rd metatarsal and intermediate and lateral cuneiforms
what makes up the middle column of the tarsometatarsal joints?
4th and 5th metatarsals and the cuboid
what makes up the lateral tarsometatarsal joints?
inversion and eversion, dorsiflexion an plantar flexion
what motions are produced at the subtalar joint?
inversion and eversion. flexion and extension
what motions are produced at the midtarsal joint?
flexion and extension, abduction and adduction
what motions are produced at the metatarsalphalangeal joints?
flexion and extension
what motions are produced at the IP joints?
D. shortened step length on contralateral side
a complete lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg will result in what gait deviations?
A. foot slap on ipsilateral side
B. gluteus medius limp on contralateral side
C. Shortened step length on ipsilateral side
what is the C7 myotome
thumb extension, finger flexion
what is the C8 myotome
finger abduction and adduction
what is the T1 myotome
hip flexion
what is the L2 myotome
knee extension
what is the L3 myotome
ankle DF
what is the L4 myotome
great toe extension
what is the L5 myotome
PF, eversion, hip extension
what is the S1 myotome
knee flexion, PF
what is the S2 myotome
Scheuermann's Disease
a developmental disorder of the spine
abnormal growth of the thoracic spine
anterior portion of the thoracic vertebrae do not develop as fast as the posterior portion resulting in exaggerated kyphosis
Blount's disease (osteochondrosis deformans tibiae)
- growth disorder of the tibia
- characterized by inward bowing of the lower leg that worsens over time
- tibia vara
Leg-Calve-Perthes Disease
- avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head resulting from compromise of the tenuous blood supply to this area
C. 10 degrees of varus or valgus, 20 degrees of anterior posterior angulation
what is the maximum acceptable malalignment of a tibial fracture that can be managed with an off the shelf fracture orthosis?
A. 5 degrees of valgus/varus, 30 degrees of anterior-posterior angulation
B. no more than 5 degrees of varus/valgus, 10 degrees of AP angulation
C. 10 degrees of varus/valgus, 20 degrees of AP angulation
D. 10 degrees of valgus, 30 degrees of AP angulation
A few degrees of relative DF
for most patients with paraplegia to stand in KAFOs they must be allowed to rest on their iliofemoral ligaments. In order to facilitate this posture, how should the tibias be posistioned sagittally in relationship to the ground?
osteogenesis imperfecta
congenital osteoporosis, along with fractures before and during birth is indicative of which condition
arthrogryposis
- non-progressive condition characterized by multiple joint contractures and involves muscle weakness
- found at birth
- most common form is amyoplasia (hands, wrist, elbows, shoulders, feet, hips and knees are affected)
- severe conditions involve the jaw and spine
spina bifida
- birth defect that occurs when the spine and the spinal cord don't form properly
- neural tube defects
spina bifida occulta
- mildest form of spina bifida
- results in a small separation or gap in one or more vertebrae
- many pts dont even know they have it
- typically no signs or symptoms due to no nerve involvement
- may see hair/tuft, dimple, or birthmark above the spinal defect
meningocele
form of spina bifida where the protective membranes around the spinal cord push out through the opening of the vertebrae forming a sac filled with fluid
- the sac does not contain nerves so damage to the spinal cord are less likely (later complications are possible)
myelomeningocele
- most severe form of spina bifida
spinal canal is open along several vertebrae in the lower or middle back
- membranes and spinal nerves push through an opening at birth forming a sac on the baby's back (typically exposing tissues and nerves)
- prone to life threatening infections
B. a lateral heel wedge
C. a Thomas heel
D. a medial heel wedge
Thomas heel
a shoe correction used to bring the heel into varus and prevent depression in the region of the head of the talus
D. a heel lift
which of the following shoe modifications is most likely to be used for a fixed equinus deformity?
A. a cushioned heel
B. a thomas heel
C. a reverse heel
D. a heel lift
half the distance betwee the adductor tubercle and the medial tibial plateau
what is the correct location for the mechanical knee joint on a KAFO
unreliable family support, poor upper extremity strength, obesity, 20 degree hip flexion contractures
what are some contrindications for a RGO?
relive the metatarsal heads; elevate the transverse arch
metatarsal pads function to _____ as well as _____.
D. DF stop
which of the following ankle joint controls would be indicated for a patient with paralysis of the plantarflexors
A. DF assist
B. PF stop
C. PF assist
D. DF stop
A. 25mm proximal, 12mm anterior
in relation to the apex of the great trochanter, where is the mechanical hip joint located?
A. 25mm proximal, 12mm anterior
B. 25mm proximal, 12mm posterior
C. 25mm anterior, 12mm proximal
D. 25mm lateral, 12mm distal
femoral nerve
what nerve innervates the quadriceps?
L2-L
A. 103 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 94 mm
D. 83 mm
Genurecurvatum, coronal instability of the knee
what are some contraindications for a floor reaction AFO?
D. A and B
a patient with an inferior lumbar myelomeningocele may develop hip flexion contractures due to:
A. lack of hip extensors to act as antagonists
B. parental non-compliance with home stretching programs
C. good knee extension
D. A and B
C. between the stirrup and the sole
when putting a heel wedge on a shoe (in conjunction with a conventional AFO) to address a flexible varus hindfoot, the wedge should be placed:
A. between the stirrup and heel of the shoe
B. between the shank and the sole
C. between the stirrup and the sole
D. below the heel of the shoe
UCBL
- stabilizes subtalar and tarsal joints in stance
- treats rear foot valgus/varus and flexible pes planus
arthritic ankle/foot
rigid foot
what are some contraindications of a UCBL
DAFO
- dynamic
- stabilize subtalar and tarsal joints
- treats flexible pes planus, mild/modertate spastic diplegia/hemiplegia CP or hypotonic CP
rigid foot
what is a contraindication of a DAFO
Supramalleolar (SMO)
- dynamic
- stabilize subtalar and tarsal joints in stance
- prepositions foot for IC by heel
mod/severe hypertonicity
what is a contraindication of a carbon AFO?
Neuroorthosis
- dynamic
- assist in limb clearance in swing
- prepositions foot for IC by heel
- treats DF weakness/low tone
- e-stim treatment
flaccid paralysis and intolerance to e-stim
what are contrainindications for neuro-orthoses
AAFO
- dynamic
- assist in limb clearance in swing
- prepositions foot for IC by heel
- permits advancement of tibia in stance
- treats impaired motor control of ankle musculature
- indicated for potential reocver of neuromotor funtion
LMN paralysis (flaccidity) or hypotonicity as primary problem
what is a contraindication for an AAFO
SAFO
- static
- controls ankle positions throughout stance
- provides stance phase stability via ankle-knee coupling
- assists in limb clearance during swing
- prepositions foot for IC by heel
- distal trimline behind met heads or full toe-plate
- treats significant hypertonicity with seriously impaired motor control at he ankle and knee
- basis for KAFO and HKAFO
LMN paralsis (flaccidity) or hypotonicity as primary problem
what is a contraindication for a SAFO
GRAFO
- static
- provides stability in stance via knee-ankle coupling
- controls ankle position throughout stance
treats weakness or impaired motor control at knee and ankle
