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OutSystems-Becoming a Reactive Web Developer 2023 Actual Questions and Answers 100% Verifi, Exams of Information Systems

Dallas International University (DIU)Information Systems

OutSystems-Becoming a Reactive Web Developer 2023 Actual Questions and Answers 100% Verified

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 11/23/2023

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[Date]
1
OutSystems-Becoming a Reactive Web Developer
2023 Actual Questions and Answers 100%
Verified By Expert.Assured A+..
1. Which of the following statements about Entities is false?
A. Entities have attributes….
B. Entities do not require an identifier.
C. Entities are only stored in memory.
D. Entities can be created, updated, and deleted. - Correct answer C.
2. Which of the following is not a Development Environment?
A. Service Studio
B. Integration Studio
C. Service Center - Correct answer C.
3. One of the following Tools allows you to manage the application's lifecycle across
an infrastructure. Which one?
A. Service Center
B. LifeTime
C. Service Studio
D. Integration Studio - Correct answer B.
4. During the 1-Click Publish, your application data model, code, and interface is
compiled and generates .NET code, HTML, JavaScript and CSS.
A. True
B. False - Correct answer A.
5. In which Service Studio layer can Screens and Blocks be found?
A. Processes
B. Interface
C. Logic
D. Data - Correct answer B.
6. In which Service Studio layer can Entities be found?
A. Processes
B. Interface
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Download OutSystems-Becoming a Reactive Web Developer 2023 Actual Questions and Answers 100% Verifi and more Exams Information Systems in PDF only on Docsity!

[Date]

OutSystems-Becoming a Reactive Web Developer

2023 Actual Questions and Answers 100%

Verified By Expert.Assured A+..

  1. Which of the following statements about Entities is false? A. Entities have attributes…. B. Entities do not require an identifier. C. Entities are only stored in memory. D. Entities can be created, updated, and deleted. - Correct answer C.
  2. Which of the following is not a Development Environment? A. Service Studio B. Integration Studio C. Service Center - Correct answer C.
  3. One of the following Tools allows you to manage the application's lifecycle across an infrastructure. Which one? A. Service Center B. LifeTime C. Service Studio D. Integration Studio - Correct answer B.
  4. During the 1-Click Publish, your application data model, code, and interface is compiled and generates .NET code, HTML, JavaScript and CSS. A. True B. False - Correct answer A.
  5. In which Service Studio layer can Screens and Blocks be found? A. Processes B. Interface C. Logic D. Data - Correct answer B.
  6. In which Service Studio layer can Entities be found? A. Processes B. Interface

[Date] C. Logic D. Data - Correct answer D.

  1. Regarding Reactive Web Apps in OutSystems, which of the following options is false? A. Reactive Web app is a cross-device app. B. Data requests are executed synchronously. C. The code generated by OutSystems results in a single-page application. D. A developer builds the Reactive Web App in Service Studio. - Correct answer B.
  2. Regarding Mobile (Phone or Tablet) Apps in OutSystems, which of the following options is false? A. Mobile Apps can run natively on iOS and Android. B. Mobile Apps can be distributed as a PWA. C. Mobile Apps do not have offline capabilities. D. The programming model of Mobile Apps is similar to Reactive Web Apps. - Correct answer C.
  3. What happens when a developer publishes a module? A. The OutSystems platform compiles it and generates the HTML, CSS, and JavaScript. B. The browser opens.
  4. C Nothing.
  5. D. The code is uploaded but only compiled when a user accesses the application. - Correct answer A.
  6. Which of the following options is false regarding Modules and Applications? A. An application is composed of a set of modules. B. Modules can be of different types such as Reactive Web App, Blank or Extension. C. Elements can be exposed and reused, but only within the same application. D. A module that reuses an element from another module is called a Consumer. - Correct answer C.
  7. Business concepts that need to be stored and accessed in our applications should be modeled as... A. Entities. B. Entity diagrams. C. Entity relationships.

[Date]

  1. Screens can be composed of a combination of several elements called Widgets. A. True B. False - Correct answer A.
  2. What type of variables can be created inside a Screen? A. Local Variables only. B. Input Parameters only. C. Input Parameters and Local Variables. D. Input Parameters, Output Parameters, and Local Variables. - Correct answer C.
  3. Which of the following options is false? A. Input Parameters allow passing data between Screens when navigating between them. B. Local Variables from a Screen may be directly accessed from another Screen. C. Local Variables allow temporarily storing relevant information inside a Screen. D. When the value of a Local Variable changes, the user interface reacts immediately. - Correct answer B.
  4. The Expression widget... A. ... displays only static text. B. ... displays text calculated at runtime. C. ... displays only the result of mathematical expressions. - Correct answer B.
  5. Which of the following behaviors is true for Links and Buttons? A. Links can only navigate to Screens. B. Buttons can only have a Screen Action as an On Click Destination. C. Links and Buttons can either Navigate to screens or trigger Screen Actions. D. Only Links can navigate to external URLs. - Correct answer C.
  6. Regarding the If Widget, which of the following options is false? A. Functions can be used inside the Condition of an If. B. More branches may be added to an If Widget. C. Only one of the branches is shown at runtime. D. Multiple widgets may be added inside each branch. - Correct answer B.

[Date]

  1. Regarding the Container widget, which of the following options is false? A. Containers allow grouping several widgets. B. By default, containers can span from 1 column up to 12 columns. C. Containers can be placed inside other containers. D. All containers must have at least one widget inside. - Correct answer D.
  2. Which of the following options is correct? A. Screen Actions can call other Screen Actions from a different screen. B. Client Actions can call Screen Actions. C. Server Actions can call Client Actions. D. Client Actions can call Server Actions. - Correct answer D.
  3. Client Actions and Server Actions can have the following variables: A. Input and Output Parameters, but no Local variables. B. Input Parameters and Local Variables, but no Output Parameters. C. Input and Output Parameters, as well as Local Variables. D. Output Parameters and Local Variables, but no Input Parameters. - Correct answer C.
  4. The flow of an action can have... A. ... multiple Start and End nodes. B. ... one or more Start nodes but only one End node. C. ... only one Start node but multiple End nodes. D. ... only one Start node and one End node. - Correct answer C.
  5. Regarding the If statement, which of the following options is false? A. Both True and False branches are mandatory. B. Only one of the branches is executed, depending on the If condition's outcome. C. If statements can also be used to implement ad-hoc loops. D. More branches may be added if needed. - Correct answer D.
  6. Regarding the Switch statement, which of the following options is false? A. The first branch that the condition evaluates to True is executed. B. Every branch that evaluates to True is executed. C. If no branch evaluates to True, the Otherwise branch is executed. D. The Otherwise branch must exist. - Correct answer B.
  7. Inside an Action flow...

[Date] D. To define the Entities we want to get records from. - Correct answer A.

  1. Regarding Screen Aggregates, which of the following options is false? A. Screen Aggregates run asynchronously and in parallel. B. Screen Aggregates only exist within the scope of the Screen where they were defined. C. Screen Aggregates can only be executed when explicitly called. D. By default, Screen Aggregates run automatically.
  2. Screen Aggregates can only fetch data from the database. - Correct answer C.
  3. How is the data fetched by an Aggregate bound to a Table or a List widget? A. By setting the Source property of the widget to the output of the Aggregate. B. The binding is done automatically since the Aggregate is in the scope of the Screen. C. By adding an Expression inside the widget that refers to an attribute of the data fetched by the Aggregate. D. By creating a Screen Action that programmatically assigns the widget to the data fetched by the Aggregate. - Correct answer A.
  4. Considering ListItem and List Actions, which of the following options is false? A. List Actions can only be used inside List Items. B. List Items can be used outside of Lists C. When List Items have the full swiping option activated, the List Action is not necessary. D. The List Action triggers a Screen Action that will have the logic to be executed on swipe. - Correct answer C.
  5. Regarding data relationships, which of the following options is correct? A. An Entity must have an identifier to allow relationships. B. A reference attribute needs to be mandatory. C. An Entity can only have one reference attribute. D. The Entity identifier must be an integer. - Correct answer A.
  6. Which of the following steps is necessary to create a 1-to-1 relationship between Entity A and Entity B? A. Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity B to Entity A Identifier. B. Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity A Identifier and Entity B Identifier. C. Add a new reference attribute of type Entity B Identifier to Entity A.

[Date] D. Add a new Entity C, with the identifier attribute being a composition of types Entity A Identifier and Entity B Identifier. - Correct answer A.

  1. Which of the following steps is necessary to create a 1-to-many relationship between a Master Entity A and a Detail Entity B? A. Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity B to Entity A Identifier. B. Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity A Identifier and Entity B Identifier. C. Entity A must have a reference attribute of type Entity B Identifier. D. Entity B must have a reference attribute of type Entity A Identifier. - Correct answer D.
  2. Which of the following steps is necessary to create a many-to-many relationship between Entity A and Entity B? A. Set the data type of the identifier attribute of Entity B to Entity A Identifier. B. Add a new reference attribute of type Entity B Identifier to Entity A. C. Add a new Entity C, with two reference attributes of type Entity A Identifier and Entity B Identifier. D. Add a new reference attribute of type Entity B Identifier to Entity A and a new reference attribute of type Entity A Identifier to Entity B. - Correct answer C.
  3. Regarding Indexes, which of the following options is correct? A. Custom indexes cannot be added to an Entity. B. Indexes speed up data retrieval without any kind of impact. C. Unique indexes help prevent data duplication. D. Indexes over referenced attributes cannot be deleted. - Correct answer C.
  4. Regarding the Delete Rule property, which of the following options does not guarantee referential integrity? A. Protect B. Delete C. Ignore - Correct answer C.
  5. Which of the following behaviors does not apply to Forms? A. A Form groups input widgets and allows displaying and editing data. B. A Form has a Source property that will hold the values submitted by the user. C. Besides input widgets, a Form can hold other widgets such as Links and Buttons.

[Date] A. Mandatory Fields B. Maximum length of text fields C. Data types of input fields - Correct answer B.

  1. Which of the following options is correct regarding the Valid property of the Form? A. The Valid property of the Form should be checked after the last custom validation. B. The Valid property of the Form is automatically changed to False when all the input fields of the Form are not valid. C. The Valid property of the Form should be explicitly set to False (e.g. with an Assign) when an input field is not valid. D. When built-in validations are enabled, the Valid property of the Form is automatically checked before executing the client action logic. - Correct answer A.
  2. Which of the following options is correct regarding the Valid property of the Form? A. The Valid property of the Form should be checked after the last custom validation. B. The Valid property of the Form is automatically changed to False when all the input fields of the Form are not valid. C. The Valid property of the Form should be explicitly set to False (e.g. with an Assign) when an input field is not valid. D. When built-in validations are enabled, the Valid property of the Form is automatically checked before executing the client action logic. - Correct answer A.
  3. In OutSystems, how do we restrict access to a Screen? A. Go to the Users application and associate the Screen to a specific role. B. In the Screen Properties, untick roles to restrict their access. C. Use the CheckRole Action. D. We don't. Only users with a username and password can access. - Correct answer B.
  4. Considering the built-in Role Actions, which of the following options is false? A. The CheckRole Action checks if a user has that particular Role. B. The GrantRole Action allows to grant a Role to a user programmatically. C. The RevokeRole Action allows to remove a Role from a user programmatically. D. The CreateUserWithRole Action creates an end-user and assigns it the Role. - Correct answer D.

[Date]

  1. In OutSystems, where can we place breakpoints? A. In Actions only (Client-side and Server-Side) B. Server-side logic only C. Client-side logic only D. In Actions and Variables - Correct answer A.
  2. In OutSystems, it is possible to inspect the values of variables while debugging. A. True B. False - Correct answer A.
  3. Which of the following commands is not available in the OutSystems debugger? A. Stop Debugging B. Continue Request C. Step Over D. Restart Debugging - Correct answer D.
  4. When debugging a consumer module, how do we guarantee that the execution stops on breakpoints defined in the producer module? A. We just need to set breakpoints in the producer module. The execution will stop on its breakpoints automatically. B. We need to also start the debugger on the producer module. C. Nothing, just leave Service Studio open. D. In the producer, set the Entry Module property to the consumer module. - Correct answer D.
  5. In OutSystems, a Block is a reusable UI component. Which of the following is NOT correct? A. A Block promotes reusability, i.e. develop once, reuse many times. B. A Block encapsulates its own logic. C. A Block improves maintainability, i.e., change the design or functionality, affect all usages. D. A Block can only be reused once. - Correct answer D.
  6. A Block can be used... A. Only inside other Screens. B. Inside Screens and Blocks, including itself. C. Inside Screens and Blocks, except on itself. D. Only inside other Blocks. - Correct answer C.

[Date] A. Retrieve data from the server database. B. Act on data returned by a Data Action. C. Manipulate the DOM. D. Set the default value of a Local Variable. - Correct answer D.

  1. Which of the following is the correct order of occurrence of events in a Screen? A. Initialize, Ready, Render, Destroy. B. Initialize, Destroy, Ready, Render. C. Ready, Initialize, Render, Destroy. D. Initialize, Render, Ready, Destroy. - Correct answer A.
  2. Which of the following options is false regarding Screen Aggregates? A. The Render Event on the Screen is triggered when an Aggregate with the Fetch property set to "only on demand" finishes its execution. B. A Screen Aggregate can be triggered when a screen is initializing or only On Demand. C. All Aggregates, by default, have the Fetch property set to On Demand. D. The On After Fetch Event is triggered for every Aggregate, regardless of its Fetch property. - Correct answer C.
  3. Consider an Aggregate with the Fetch property set to Only On Demand. When does that Aggregate run? A. Automatically, when the Screen is initializing. B. Programmatically, using a Refresh Data node in a Screen Action. C. Automatically, when the Aggregates set to run "At Start" finish. D. Programmatically, using a Server Action. - Correct answer B.
  4. Which of the following options is correct regarding Client Variables? A. The value of a Client Variable is shared among all logged-in users. B. Lists or Binary Data can also be stored on Client Variables. C. Client Variables should be used to store confidential information. D. Client Variables are useful to cache frequently accessed information. - Correct answer D.
  5. Which of the following would be a good use case for a Client Variable? A. Credit Card Number B. Profile Picture C. User Identifier D. User Name - Correct answer D.

[Date]

  1. The value of a Site Property can be modified in Service Center to change the application behavior at runtime. A. True B. False - Correct answer A.
  2. Which of the following is a good use case for a Site Property? A. Current user ID B. Total Stock Quantity of Products C. REST Web Service API Key D. Search Keyword - Correct answer C.
  3. Which of the following options is correct, when implementing pagination with Tables or Lists? A. The Start Index property of the Pagination holds the current page number. B. The Max Records property of the Pagination holds the number of records to show per page. C. The Total Count input of the Pagination pattern should be set to the number of records per page. - Correct answer B.
  4. Regarding sorting in a Table, which of the following options is correct? A. All header cells need to have the Sort Attribute property defined. B. Only the Sort Attribute of the header cells needs to be defined. Data is refreshed automatically. C. The On Sort event has an input parameter containing the clicked column. - Correct answer C.
  5. Regarding sorting Lists, which of the following options is correct? A. Lists have a built-in On Sort event. B. Sort clauses cannot be changed dynamically at runtime when using Lists. C. Other Widgets should be used to allow the end-user to define the sort criteria. - Correct answer C.
  6. Which of the following is the correct syntax for Entities and Attributes? A. {Entity}.[Attribute] B. (Entity).{Attribute} C. [Entity].{Attribute} D. Entity.Attribute - Correct answer A.
  7. Considering Aggregates and the SQL Tool, which of the following is the correct option?

[Date] A. True B. False - Correct answer A.

  1. Screens have Output Parameters. A. True B. False C. It depends on the setup of the developer D. Producer module only - Correct answer B.
  2. The scope of Input Parameters and Local Variables is limited to the Screen where they are defined. A. True B. False C. Varies depending on the module setup D. Varies when using function. - Correct answer A.
  3. Screen Actions can also call Server Actions. A. True B. False C. Neither D. Either - Correct answer A.
  4. Different Exceptions are handled by different specific Handlers. A. True B. False C. Either D. Neither - Correct answer A.
  5. The "Delete" Delete Rule property option does not ensure referential integrity in the relationship and should be used with caution. A. True B. False - Correct answer B.
  6. Considering Users and Roles in OutSystems, which of the following options is correct? A. By default, end-users are managed in the built-in Users application. B. End-users can only be created programmatically, using Actions from the Users application. C. There are three built-in roles in OutSystems: Anonymous, AppUser and Registered. D. All users, with or without a login, have automatically the Registered Role. - Correct answer A.

[Date]

  1. Consider an Aggregate with a "With or Without" join between two entities. What is the expected output of the Aggregate? A. All records from both Entities (FULL OUTER JOIN). B. Only records where there is a match between the two Entities (INNER JOIN). C. All records from the left entity even if there is no match in the right entity (LEFT JOIN). D. All records from the right entity even if there is no match in the left entity (RIGHT JOIN). - Correct answer C.
  2. Considering that Aggregates can have hidden columns, which of the following options is correct? A. Hiding columns in the Aggregate only affects the preview of the output. B. Columns that are empty in the database are automatically hidden. C. The hidden columns help optimizing the Aggregate. D. The hidden columns are not part of the output. - Correct answer A.
  3. Which of the following elements can't be used to create calculated attributes in an Aggregate? A. Value of the attributes of the Source Entities. B. Built-in Functions that can be translated to SQL (e.g. Length(), Power()). C. Variables. D. Server Actions using Entity Attributes. - Correct answer D.
  4. Consider that we want to apply aggregation functions in an Aggregate. Which of the following options is false? A. We can apply multiple aggregation functions inside an Aggregate. B. The output of the Aggregate will contain all attributes from the Source Entities plus the aggregation columns. C. We can apply the following functions on attributes of integer data type: sum, max, min, count and average. D. The output of the Aggregate will not include the columns at grey. - Correct answer B.
  5. The order of the Entities in the join does not matter. A. True B. False - Correct answer B.
  6. It is possible to translate all Server Actions into SQL. A. True

[Date]

  1. Which event is only available in Screen Aggregates and Data Actions and acts upon data fetched from the database or server. A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer D.
  2. Which event is used to set focus on one particular widget? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer A.
  3. Which event is best used for adding Javascript listeners to elements that are part of the DOM? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer A.
  4. Which event is best used to react changes in data? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer B.
  5. Which event is needed for very specific use cases such as removing Javascript listeners or to clean the DOM that was previously changed in the ready event? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer C.
  6. Which event is useful when aggregates depend on each other? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer D.

[Date]

  1. Which event handler of the first aggregate can be used to refresh the query of the second aggregate? A. On Ready B. On After Fetch C. On Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer B.
  2. Which event is needed if we do some logic over the result such as checking if it is empty? A. Ready B. Render C. Destroy D. After Fetch - Correct answer D.
  3. For a record to be included in the output result it must be true for all filters defined. A. True B. False - Correct answer A.
  4. Considering the following Entities (https://drive.google.com/file/d/1WsHUUMSgcx3NbwSMrshSTKe-SqnLCcRG/ view?usp=sharing), what is required to create a many-to-many relationship between them? A. Create a third Entity that contains two attributes of types Order Identifier and Product Identifier. B. Create a third Entity with a primary key of type Order Identifier and an attribute of type Product Identifier. C. Create an attribute of type Order Identifier in the Product Entity and an attribute of type Product Identifier in the Order Entity. D. Create an attribute of type Product Identifier in the Order Entity. - Correct answer A.
  5. OutSystems, an Entity Identifier ... A. ... must have its Data Type set to Long Integer. B. ... must be set to Auto Number. C. ... can only be a single attribute. D. ... is created automatically and cannot be modified. - Correct answer C.
  6. Considering the following Aggregate (https://drive.google.com/file/d/11tUfXgUASyo932VISD6nB4Xmho342ZNn/view?