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A collection of questions and answers related to the palo alto networks certified cybersecurity associate (pccsa) exam. It covers various topics including cloud computing, business intelligence, cyber-attack lifecycle, malware, network security, virtualization, and cloud security. Useful for individuals preparing for the pccsa exam.
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In which cloud computing service model does a provider's applications run on a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the underlying infrastructure? A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) C. Software as a Service (SaaS) D. Public Cloud - ✔✔C
Business intelligence (BI) software consists of tools and techniques used to surface large amounts of raw unstructured data to perform a variety of tasks including data mining, event processing, and predictive analytics. (True or False) - ✔✔T
The process in which end users find personal technology and apps that are more powerful or capable, more convenient, less expensive, quicker to install, and easier to use than enterprise IT solutions is known as consumerization. (True or False) - ✔✔T
An organization can be compliant with all applicable security and privacy regulations for its industry, yet still not be secure. (True or False) - ✔✔T
The U.S. law that establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other health information is known as. - ✔✔HIPAA
Most cyberattacks today are perpetrated by internal threat actors such as malicious employees engaging in corporate espionage. (True or False) - ✔✔F
The Cyber-Attack Lifecycle is a five-step process that an attacker goes through to attack a network. (True or False) - ✔✔F
D. None of the above - ✔✔B
Which option is an important characteristic or capability of advanced malware?
A. Distributed, fault-tolerant architecture B. Multi-functionality C. Hiding techniques such as polymorphism, metamorphism, and obfuscation D. All of the above - ✔✔D
A vulnerability is a small piece of software code, part of a malformed data file, or a sequence (string) of commands created by an attacker to cause unintended or unanticipated behavior in a system or software. (True or False) - ✔✔F
New exploits can be crafted from any number of more than a thousand core exploit techniques. (True or False) - ✔✔F
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an effective protocol for securing wireless networks. (True or False) -
✔✔F
A is a mathematical function that creates a unique representation of a larger set of data in a manner that is easy to compute in one direction, but not in the reverse direction. - ✔✔hash
A sends data packets to destination networks along a network path using logical addresses. - ✔✔router
Which option is an example of a static routing protocol?
A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) D. Split horizon - ✔✔C
C. Link-state D. Point-to-point - ✔✔ABC
The internet is an example of a wide-area network (WAN). (True or False) - ✔✔T
is a distributed, hierarchical internet database that maps FQDNs to IP addresses. -
✔✔DNS
Which option is an example of a logical address?
A. IP address B. Hardware address C. MAC address D. Burned-in address - ✔✔A
An IPv4 address consists of four -bit octets. - ✔✔ 8
is a technique used to divide a large network into smaller, multiple subnetworks by segmenting an IPv4 address into a network and host portion. - ✔✔Subnetting
The OSI model consists of how many layers?
A. Four B. Six C. Seven D. Nine - ✔✔C
Which two protocols function at the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) B. Internet Protocol (IP) C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
What does the first phase of implementing security in virtualized data centers consist of?
a) consolidating servers across trust levels
b) consolidating servers within trust levels c) selectively virtualizing network security functions d) implementing a dynamic computing fabric - ✔✔B
A dynamic packet filtering firewall inspects each individual packet during a session to determine if the traffic should be allowed, blocked, or dropped by the firewall. (True or False) - ✔✔F
What are three characteristics of application firewalls? (Choose three.)
a) proxies traffic rather than permitting direct communication between hosts b) can be used to implement strong user authentication c) masks the internal network from untrusted networks d) is extremely fast and has no impact on network performance - ✔✔ABC
Which VPN technology is currently considered the preferred method for securely connecting a remote endpoint device back to an enterprise network?
a) point-to-point tunneling protocol (PPTP) b) secure socket tunneling protocol (SSTP) c) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) d) Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) - ✔✔C
Which is NOT a characteristic of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
a) It combines security functions such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), anti-malware, and data loss prevention (DLP) in a single appliance. b) enabling all of the security functions in a UTM device can have a significant performance impact. c) It fully integrates all the security functions installed on the device. d) It can be a convenient solution for small networks. - ✔✔C
Signature-based anti-malware software is considered a proactive security countermeasure. (True or False) - ✔✔F
d) intra-VM communications - ✔✔ABD
A storage area network (SAN) uses -based storage. - ✔✔block
is a network directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows networks. - ✔✔Active Directory
is a set of IT service management best practices. - ✔✔ITIL
is a purpose-built, fully integrated cybersecurity approach that helps organizations get control of their networks and protect critical assets. - ✔✔Security Operating Platform
Which three options are key components of the Security Operating Platform? (Choose three.)
a) network security b) advanced endpoint protection c) cloud security d) application development security - ✔✔ABC
Which option is not a defining characteristic of a NGFW?
a) low latency packet processing with minimal throughput loss b) adherence to strict port and protocol enforcement for allow or block decisions c) integrated security tools d) bidirectional full-stack analysis of packets - ✔✔B
What are the three core capabilities of an NGFW? (Choose three.)
a) user identification b) splunk identification c) application identification d) content identification - ✔✔ACD
a) packet headers b) application signatures c) protocol decoding d) behavioral analysis - ✔✔A
Panorama does not integrate with which option?
a) WildFire b) Splunk c) Palo Alto Networks NGFWs d) traditional port-based firewalls - ✔✔D
The key to Traps is blocking core exploit and malware techniques, not the individual attacks. (True or False) - ✔✔T
What are the three keys to safely enabling mobile devices in the enterprise? (Choose three)
A. control the data B. provision the device C. manage the device D. protect the device - ✔✔ACD
provides continuous monitoring of public clouds and helps organizations achieve a continuous state of compliance in their public cloud workloads. - ✔✔Evident
Aperture is deployed as a standalone inline service between the organization's traditional perimeter- based firewalls and requires a software agent to be installed on mobile devices. - ✔✔F
Aperture protects data in hosted files and application entries. - ✔✔T
Magnifier leverages to analyze network, endpoint, and cloud data, which helps security analysts rapidly confirm threats by reviewing actionable alerts. - ✔✔machine learning
c. subscription service d. internet or application-based
e. extensive manpower required - ✔✔BCD
Mobile devices are easy targets for attacks for which two reasons? (Choose two.)
a. They roam in unsecured areas. b. They have poor battery-charging capabilities. c. They stay in an always-on, always-present state. d. They use speaker phones. - ✔✔AC
An organization can be fully compliant with the various cybersecurity laws and regulations that are applicable for that organization, yet still not be secure. (True or False.) - ✔✔T
Which path or tool is used by attackers?
a. threat vector b. software as a service (SaaS) c. storage-area networks (SAN) d. anti-malware update - ✔✔A
Which kind of server is a master server that is designed to listen to individual compromised endpoints and respond with appropriate attack commands?
a. bot b. web c. command and control d. directory services - ✔✔C
Another term for a "bot" is a "zombie". (True or False) - ✔✔T
A man-in-the middle attack requires that the attacker successfully spoof the identities of