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A series of questions and answers related to palo alto networks' cybersecurity solutions, specifically focusing on the pccsa certification. It covers topics such as cloud computing service models (saas, paas, iaas), the cyber-attack lifecycle, network security principles like zero trust, and key components of a security operating platform. The questions address various aspects of network security, including firewalls, vpns, malware prevention, and virtualization security. It is designed to test and reinforce understanding of cybersecurity concepts and palo alto networks' specific technologies, making it a valuable resource for individuals preparing for the pccsa certification or seeking to enhance their knowledge of network security. Useful for students and professionals in cybersecurity.
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In which cloud computing service model does a provider's applications run on a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the underlying infrastructure? A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) C. Software as a Service (SaaS) D. Public Cloud - ✔✔C Business intelligence (BI) software consists of tools and techniques used to surface large amounts of raw unstructured data to perform a variety of tasks including data mining, event processing, and predictive analytics. (True or False) - ✔✔T The process in which end users find personal technology and apps that are more powerful or capable, more convenient, less expensive, quicker to install, and easier to use than enterprise IT solutions is known as consumerization. (True or False) - ✔✔T An organization can be compliant with all applicable security and privacy regulations for its industry, yet still not be secure. (True or False) - ✔✔T The U.S. law that establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other health information is known as. - ✔✔HIPAA Most cyberattacks today are perpetrated by internal threat actors such as malicious employees engaging in corporate espionage. (True or False) - ✔✔F The Cyber-Attack Lifecycle is a five-step process that an attacker goes through to attack a network. (True or False) - ✔✔F
List the steps of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle. - ✔✔Reconnaissance, Weaponization, Delivery, Exploitation, Installation, Command and Control, Actions on Objectives An attacker needs to succeed in executing only one step of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle to infiltrate a network, whereas a defender must "be right every time" and break every step of the chain to prevent an attack. (True or False) - ✔✔F Which technique is not used to break the command-and-control (C&C) phase of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle? A. Blocking outbound traffic to known malicious sites and IP addresses B. DNS sinkholing and DNS poisoning C. Vulnerability and patch management D. All of the above - ✔✔C The key to breaking the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle during the Installation phase is to implement network segmentation, a Zero Trust model, and granular control of applications to limit or restrict an attacker's lateral movement within the network. (True or False) - ✔✔T Network firewalls cannot completely protect hosts from zero-day exploits. (True or False) - ✔✔T exploits target unknown vulnerabilities in operating system and application software on a host machine. - ✔✔Zero-day Which option describes malicious software or code that typically takes control of, collects information from, or damages an infected endpoint? A. Exploit B. Malware C. Vulnerability D. None of the above - ✔✔B Which option is an important characteristic or capability of advanced malware?
C. Link-state D. Point-to-point - ✔✔ABC The internet is an example of a wide-area network (WAN). (True or False) - ✔✔T is a distributed, hierarchical internet database that maps FQDNs to IP addresses. - ✔✔DNS Which option is an example of a logical address? A. IP address B. Hardware address C. MAC address D. Burned-in address - ✔✔A An IPv4 address consists of four - bit octets. - ✔✔ 8 is a technique used to divide a large network into smaller, multiple subnetworks by segmenting an IPv4 address into a network and host portion. - ✔✔Subnetting The OSI model consists of how many layers? A. Four B. Six C. Seven D. Nine - ✔✔C Which two protocols function at the Transport layer of the OSI model? A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) B. Internet Protocol (IP) C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) - ✔✔AC The Data Link layer of the OSI model is further divided into these two sublayers: and. - ✔✔LLC and MAC Which four layers comprise the TCP/IP model? (Choose four.) A. Application B. Transport C. Physical D. Internet E. Network Access - ✔✔ABDE The process that wraps protocol information from the (OSI or TCP/IP) layer immediately above in the data section of the layer immediately below is known as. - ✔✔encapsulation A Zero Trust network security model is based on which security principle? a) due diligence b) least privilege c) non-repudiation d) negative control - ✔✔B Intra-VM traffic is also known as which type of traffic? a) north-south b) unknown c) east-west d) untrusted - ✔✔C What does the first phase of implementing security in virtualized data centers consist of? a) consolidating servers across trust levels
endpoint protection wraps a protective virtual barrier around vulnerable processes while they're running. - ✔✔Container-based What are three typical mobile device management software capabilities? (Choose three.) a) data loss prevention (DLP) b) policy enforcement c) intrusion detection d) malware prevention - ✔✔ABD Which three cloud computing service models are defined by NIST? (Choose three.) a) software as a service (SaaS) b) platform as a service (PaaS) c) desktop as a service (DaaS) d) infrastructure as a service (IaaS) - ✔✔ABD A cloud infrastructure comprises two or more cloud deployment models, bound by standardized or proprietary technology that enables data and application portability. - ✔✔hybrid The defines who (customer and/or provider) is responsible for what, related to security, in the public cloud. - ✔✔Shared Responsibility Model A allows multiple, virtual operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer. - ✔✔hypervisor Which three important security considerations are associated with virtualization? (Choose three.) a) dormant VMs b) hypervisor vulnerabilities c) hypervisor sprawl d) intra-VM communications - ✔✔ABD
A storage area network (SAN) uses - based storage. - ✔✔block is a network directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows networks. - ✔✔Active Directory is a set of IT service management best practices. - ✔✔ITIL is a purpose-built, fully integrated cybersecurity approach that helps organizations get control of their networks and protect critical assets. - ✔✔Security Operating Platform Which three options are key components of the Security Operating Platform? (Choose three.) a) network security b) advanced endpoint protection c) cloud security d) application development security - ✔✔ABC Which option is not a defining characteristic of a NGFW? a) low latency packet processing with minimal throughput loss b) adherence to strict port and protocol enforcement for allow or block decisions c) integrated security tools d) bidirectional full-stack analysis of packets - ✔✔B What are the three core capabilities of an NGFW? (Choose three.) a) user identification b) splunk identification c) application identification d) content identification - ✔✔ACD Which option is not a core technique for identifying applications in Palo Alto Networks NGFWs?
Which three options are threat intelligence sources for AutoFocus? (Choose three.) a) WildFire b) URL filtering with PAN-DB service c) Unit 42 threat intelligence and research team d) third-party intrusion prevention systems - ✔✔ABC AutoFocus is an optional module that can be installed on NGFWs. - ✔✔F is an open-source application, available directly on GitHub, that streamlines the aggregation, enforcement, and sharing of threat intelligence. - ✔✔MineMeld WildFire operates on which concept? a) file-based scanning against a signature database b) IPS and SIEM tool correlation c) cloud-based reputation service d) virtualized sandbox - ✔✔D WildFire prevents known and unknown malware threats. (True or False) - ✔✔F WildFire performs deep packet inspection of malicious outbound communications to disrupt C&C activity. (True or False) - ✔✔T Which three options describe the relationship and interaction between a customer and software as a service (SaaS)? (Choose three.) a. complex deployment b. convenient and economical c. subscription service d. internet or application-based
e. extensive manpower required - ✔✔BCD Mobile devices are easy targets for attacks for which two reasons? (Choose two.) a. They roam in unsecured areas. b. They have poor battery-charging capabilities. c. They stay in an always-on, always-present state. d. They use speaker phones. - ✔✔AC An organization can be fully compliant with the various cybersecurity laws and regulations that are applicable for that organization, yet still not be secure. (True or False.) - ✔✔T Which path or tool is used by attackers? a. threat vector b. software as a service (SaaS) c. storage-area networks (SAN) d. anti-malware update - ✔✔A Which kind of server is a master server that is designed to listen to individual compromised endpoints and respond with appropriate attack commands? a. bot b. web c. command and control d. directory services - ✔✔C Another term for a "bot" is a "zombie". (True or False) - ✔✔T A man-in-the middle attack requires that the attacker successfully spoof the identities of a. the network appliance b. the internal user
A risk assessment examines the vulnerabilities associated with each asset and then assigns one risk factor valuation to globally protect all assets. (True or False) - ✔✔F Which security model ensures that all resources are accessed securely, regardless of location? a. perimeter b. Zero Trust c. cloud-based d. mobile device management - ✔✔B Which three items are evaluated by least privilege security policies? (Choose three.) a. application identity b. hacker signatures c. device identity d. content identity e. user identity - ✔✔ADE The Zero Trust security model is primarily concerned with packet management at the network border, gateway, or perimeter, because it monitors frames that are entering and leaving the internal network and generally applies packet filtering firewall rules. (True or False) - ✔✔F Which four components are part of a traditional data center? (Choose four.) a. logging and monitoring services b. Domain Name Services (DNS) c. file screening and classification services d. IP address management e. storage-area network (SAN) f. perimeter firewalls - ✔✔ACEF
The ports-first focus used by traditional data security perimeter firewalls limits their ability to see all traffic on all ports, meaning they do not effectively evaluate evasive or encrypted applications. (True or False) - ✔✔T Communications that occur within the data center are commonly referred to as what? a. hybrid b. north-south c. east-west d. agile - ✔✔C Which three entities have been identified for defining security responsibilities and commitments as dictated in the Shared Responsibility Model? (Choose three.) a. federal government b. Cloud Service Providers c. corporate customers d. end users e. application developers - ✔✔BCD Which four services typically are supported by the provider with the platform-as-a-service (PaaS) model? (Choose four.) a. servers b. operating system c. virtualization d. application e. storage f. data - ✔✔ABCE Which four items typically are analyzed by a next-generation firewall? (Choose four.) a. uniform resource locators b. User-ID
b. prevents against zero-day attacks c. deletes infected files d. downloads signature file updates from the vendor site e. prevents spam - ✔✔ACD Signature-based anti-malware detection is a static process that compares file contents against a database of known malware bits and bytes. Anomaly or behavioral heuristics anti-malware detection is a dynamic process that uses learning processes to determine acceptable practices. (True or False) - ✔✔T Containers that are built according to which design are built with an image manifest that describes all of the metadata and container properties? a. whitelist b. positive control model c. Application Awareness d. open container initiative - ✔✔D What challenges attackers to overcome security barriers at the perimeter, on the local network, and on the endpoint itself? a. defense-in-depth b. packet filtering c. anomaly detection d. application management - ✔✔A Mobile device management can be utilized to apply security policies that support malware protection and data loss prevention classifications after what happens to a mobile device? a. It is placed in a virtual container. b. It is installed with a personal firewall. c. It is properly identified and authenticated. d. It is quarantined. - ✔✔C
Which four items are examined by a next-generation firewall? (Choose four.) a. ports b. north-south traffic c. User-ID d. Content-ID e. Application-ID f. gateway - ✔✔ACDE Which Palo Alto Networks security product uses a proactive prevention strategy to block exploit and malware techniques and deliver Advanced Endpoint Protection? a. Traps b. WildFire c. Prisma Public Cloud d. Prisma SaaS - ✔✔A The Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform delivers solutions that address three main security topics: network security, Advanced Endpoint Protection, and cloud security. (True or False) - ✔✔T Which Palo Alto Networks product identifies unknown threats by comparing executable files against a database of shared data from the industry's largest enterprise malware analysis community? a. Panorama b. MineMeld c. WildFire d. Prisma Public Cloud - ✔✔C Which Palo Alto Networks cloud security management service provides continuous security monitoring, compliance validation and reporting, and comprehensive storage security? a. Cortex XDR b. Prisma Public Cloud c. Prisma SaaS
c. Traps agent d. web server - ✔✔AC What is the GlobalProtect dashboard that allows you to use widgets and filters to evaluate and summarize trends related to your mobile devices and compliance status? a. Endpoint Security Manager (ESM) b. GlobalProtect Portal c. Virus Protection Node (VPN) d. Mobile Security Manager (MSM) - ✔✔D Which three options would be classified as "VPN Challenges"? (Choose three.) a. deep packet inspection b. analysis of data per Regulatory and Compliance policies c. file screening and classification services d. maintenance and updating of client apps and services e. enablement of SSL on web browsers - ✔✔ABD In Prisma Access, GlobalProtect Gateways direct all client traffic to the appropriate GlobalProtect Portal. (True or False) - ✔✔F GlobalProtect provides a VPN solution. (True or False) - ✔✔T In Prisma Access, GlobalProtect allows secure access from where when enabling of partner or contractor access to protected applications is needed? a. Bluetooth b. SSL-enabled web browsers c. email d. App Store services - ✔✔B
Which three terms are recognized software-as-a-service (SaaS) classifications? (Choose three.) a. denied b. tolerated c. licensed d. sanctioned e. unsanctioned - ✔✔BDE What does Prisma SaaS use to connect directly to a SaaS application? a. portal b. API c. gateway d. VPN - ✔✔B Prisma SaaS can inspect documents in unstructured and structured environments for common sensitive data strings, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers. (True or False) - ✔✔T Prisma Public Cloud supports the downloading of compliance reports. (True or False) - ✔✔T Prisma Public Cloud resides in the public cloud. - ✔✔T In Prisma Public Cloud, which three methods can be used to resolve alerts? (Choose three.) A. Automated remediation B. Guided remediation C. Manual remediation D. Metadata remediation - ✔✔ABC Prisma Public Cloud provides support for which public cloud provider? A. OpenStack B. Google Cloud Platform