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Patho Mid term Chamberlain nr
Questions & Answers
Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body's cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes? - ANSWERSD. They are transcriptionally active. Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition - ANSWERSHeart disease Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where? - ANSWERSSignals come from inside the cell, from neighboring cells or the environment During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities - ANSWERSA. In utero The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is? - ANSWERSEpigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it - ANSWERSTotipotent cells are cells that can mature into any type of body cell in an organism including the cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are only present in mammals in the first few cell divisions of an embryo. Give 2 examples of totipotent cells - ANSWERSA zygote Cells in the early embyro up to 5 days What is a Totipotent cell? - ANSWERSTotipotent cells are cells that can differentiate into any type of body cell and extra embryonic tissue What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome? - ANSWERS1. Chronic feeling of hunger (severe, even life-threatening obesity)
- Low muscle tone
- Short
- Poor sex characteristic development
- Behavioral problems
- Poor cognitive development Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the signs of this disorder? - ANSWERS1. Severe mental retardation
- No speech
- Abnormal gait
- Wide stance
- Arms held out kinda weird What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome? - ANSWERSA deletion of a segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting. What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome? - ANSWERSA deletion of a segment of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting. A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment findings does the nurse expect with this syndrome? - ANSWERSPrader-Willi syndrome is characterized by insatiable hunger that can lead to morbid obesity in childhood. Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappropriate laughter, and nonverbal are characteristics seen in Angelman syndrome. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which sign or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome? - ANSWERSObservation shows jerky ataxic movement Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman syndrome as well as Prader Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-facial/DiGeorge syndrome What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon cancer? - ANSWERSDNA Damage is left unrepaired When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? - ANSWERSEnvironmental Stressors
- The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: - ANSWERSHemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice.
What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing - ANSWERSTo identify and measure pulmonary disease. What is the role of pulmonary function testing? - ANSWERSIt serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic role. It determines how well the lungs work. What does PFT screening do? - ANSWERSIt may detect pulmonary abnormalities caused by disease or environmental factors in general populations, occupational settings, smokers, or other high risk goups A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. The patient had a pulmonary functions test. Which of the following findings is expected? - ANSWERSDecreased functional residual capacity A nurse is teaching about the functions of the pulmonary system. Which information should the nurse include? - ANSWERS1-Provides potassium to the cells 2-Provides red blood cells to the body 3-Provides oxygen-rich blood to tissue 4-Provides carbon dioxide-rich blood to organs An 80-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing. Pulmonary function tests reveal that he has increased residual volume. A nurse suspects the most likely cause of this disorder is _____? - ANSWERSAn increase in lung compliance In a patient with acidosis or a fever, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift: - ANSWERSTo the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right by acidosis (low pH) and hypercapnia (increased PaCO2). What factors affect oxyhemoglobin dissociation? - ANSWERSpH Temperature Carbon Dioxide Fetal hemoglobin Carbon Monoxide Hemoglobin 2,3-DPG-hypoxia, anemia, pH changes, stored blood A shift to the left in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve causes = - ANSWERSan increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen but it makes it more difficult for hemoglobin to release bound oxygen A shift to the left in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is caused by = - ANSWERSdecreased Pa CO2, alkalosis, decreased metabolism and increased altitude
A shift to the right in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve causes = - ANSWERSa decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen but it makes it easier for hemoglobin to release bound oxygen A shift to the right in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is caused by = - ANSWERSincreased Pa CO2, acidosis, increased metabolism, and fever A shift to the left of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve could result in = - ANSWERShypothermia, hypocarbia, alkalosis, 1,2,3 DPG A shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve could result in = - ANSWERShyperthermia, hypercarbia, acidosis and 1,2,3 DPG Most carbon dioxide in the blood is transported? - ANSWERSmost carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohemoglobin. If an individual with respiratory difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, which of the following compensatory responses would the nurse expect to be initiated - ANSWERSIncrease in respiratory rate A patient wants to know how carbon dioxide is transported in the body. How should the nurse respond? Carbon dioxide (CO2) is mainly transported in the blood: - ANSWERSIn the form of bicarbonate Air passage between alveoli is collateral and evenly distributed because of the - ANSWERSpores of Kohn. Changes in the alveoli that cause an increase in alveolar surface tension, alveolar collapse, and decreased lung expansion are a result of: - ANSWERSdecreased surfactant production. Students in a histology class are assigned to identify regions of the lung. The slide shows a basement membrane, capillary lumen, and macrophages. The students are looking at the: - ANSWERSAlveoli While auscultating a patient's lungs, a nurse recalls the alveoli in the apexes of the lungs are _____ than alveoli in the bases. - ANSWERSLarger The nurse is caring for a client who is now 2 days post near-drowning. The focused assessment would involve which of the following areas of the lung involved in gas exchange? - ANSWERSAlveoli A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is: - ANSWERSPulmonary artery vasoconstriction
Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of the lungs at rest? - ANSWERSFunctional residual capacity (FRC) is reached. The nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine are _____ nephrons. - ANSWERSjuxtamedullary Which of the following renal structures is not a component of the nephron? - ANSWERSRenal capsule At which of the following locations in the nephron would a health care professional first expect blood to be largely free of plasma proteins? - ANSWERSBowman's space Which of the following substances is most likely to be reabsorbed in the tubular segments of the nephron using passive transport mechanisms? - ANSWERSWATER function of nephron - ANSWERSstructure of the kidney that's acts as a microscopic filtration unit the main functional unit of the kidney made up of glomerulus and tubules The nephrons are the functional units of the kidney, responsible for the initial formation of urine. The nurse knows that damage to the area of the kidney where the nephrons are located will affect urine formation. Identify that area. - ANSWERSrenal cortex The majority of nephrons (80% to 85%) are located in the renal cortex. The remaining 15% to 20% are located deeper in the cortex. Which of the following substances are actively secreted by the renal tubules? - ANSWERSHydrogen and potassium Which of the following comprises the kidney's transport system? - ANSWERStubules and pelvis Which of the following statements correctly describes a direct end-effect of the renin- angiotensin-aldosterone system? - ANSWERSAldosterone increases renal reabsorption of water and sodium. What does the reduced perfusion of the kidney activate that causes constriction of peripheral arterioles? - ANSWERSdecreasing afterload, arteriolar dilators reduce cardiac work while causing cardiac output and tissue perfusion to increase. What is the rate of glomerular filtration directly related to? - ANSWERSNet ultrafiltration pressure. A nurse educator is orientating new nurses to a renal unit of the hospital. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include as part of a review of normal
glomerular function? - ANSWERS"Glomerular filtrate is very similar in composition to blood plasma found elsewhere in circulation." A urologist is discussing the phagocytic cells that lie beteen the layers of the renal corpuscle - ANSWERSMesangial cells Lying between the layers of the renal corpuscle is a population of phagocytic cells called? - ANSWERSmesangial cells When a patient's renal system secretes rennin, what effect will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of: - ANSWERSAngiotensin The fluid formed in the capillary cluster of the nephron is the same as blood plasma except for the absence of? - ANSWERSlarger molecules of plasma protein Which of the following substances does not normally get filtered in the kidneys? - ANSWERSPlasma proteins A 25 year old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. while planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by - ANSWERSdilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage Which of the following changes will result in a decreased glomerular filtration rate? - ANSWERSIncreased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse? - ANSWERSFormation of renal calculi A group of students are reviewing information about disorders of the bladder and urethra. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as a voiding dysfunction? - ANSWERSUrinary retention A client presents at the clinic with complaints of urinary retention. What question should the nurse ask to obtain additional information about the client's complaint? - ANSWERS"When did you last urinate?" The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about acute glomerulonephritis genitourinary conditions. A student asks the about a condition that occurs when there is a decreased volume of urine output. The condition the student is referring to is which of the following? - ANSWERSOliguria Oliguria is a subnormal volume of urine. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis. Ascites is edema in the peritoneal cavity
A 15-year-old male was ... with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease? - ANSWERSGroup A ß-hemolytic streptococcus When a nurse observes poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis as a diagnosis on a patient, which principle will the nurse remember? Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by: - ANSWERSAntigen-antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage A 30 year old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is - ANSWERSacute glomerulonephritis A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond? - ANSWERSpoststreptococcal infectin Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis? - ANSWERSGross hematuria, flank pain, and hypertension A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the: - ANSWERSRespiratory tract A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, while albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is: - ANSWERSAcute glomerulonephritis A 45-year-old male presents with oliguria. He is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse knows oliguria is related to: - ANSWERSThickening of the glomerular membrane and decreased renal blood flow Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for a client with acute glomerulonephritis? - ANSWERSBlurred vision. Visual disturbances can be indicative of rising blood pressure in a client with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse assessing a child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis should be alert for which finding? - ANSWERSTea-colored urine Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is characterized by hematuria, proteinuria, edema, and renal insufficiency. Tea-colored urine is an indication of
hematuria. A urologist is discussing nephritic syndrome. Which information should be included? If nephrotic syndrome is not caused initially by kidney disease, it is termed _____ nephrotic syndrome. - ANSWERSSecondary A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition? - ANSWERSProteinuria A 7-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following should the nurse ask the parents if they or the child has noticed recently? - ANSWERSFrothy urine Response Feedback: In the child with nephrotic syndrome, the parents may notice diminished, frothy, or foamy urine output. Nephrotic syndrome occurs when there is loss of _____ in the urine. - ANSWERSprotein Secondary forms of nephrotic syndrome are associated with all of the following conditions except: - ANSWERShyperthyroidism. All correct diabetes. renal disease. systemic lupus erythematosus. Which of the following diseases is a glomerular disorder? - ANSWERSNephrotic syndrome Occurs at the glomerular membrane Which assessment finding is common in children diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome? - ANSWERSPeriorbital edema A child is getting a diagnostic work-up for nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following lab results would the nurse expect to see? - ANSWERSProteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hypercholesterolemia are diagnostic of a child with nephritic syndrome. The child will also present symptomatically with a sudden onset of edema. Hematuria is typically seen with glomerulonephritis.
- Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs. - ANSWERSThe central nervous system
Which statement regarding mast cells is true? - ANSWERSsnake bites, bee venomes and toxins can causes activation Which characteristics are observable of vascular injury and inflammation? - ANSWERSredness warmth to touch increased swelling pain What biochemical messenger is produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a bacterial pathogen? - ANSWERSinterleukins Which of the following are systemic effects of inflammation? - ANSWERSfever leukocytosis increased levels of blood plasma Chronic inflammation is characterized by a(an): - ANSWERSdense infiltrates of lymphoystes and macrophages Which of the following are not natural barriers? - ANSWERSresistance physical, mechanical, biochemical Which statement is true regarding neutrophils? - ANSWERSpredominant phagoytes in early inflammation What is the precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding of an antibody? - ANSWERSepitope Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier? - ANSWERSepithelial cells Which of the following are molecular classes of immunoglobulins? - ANSWERSIgD, IgG, IgE, IgA. IgM Which statement is true regarding aging and the immune system function? - ANSWERSantibody production to specific immune response are inferior Which statement is true regarding the immune response in humans? - ANSWERSdiversity occurs in primary lymphoid organs Which statement best describes the cells and their functions in the humoral arm of the immune system? - ANSWERSantibodies responsible for protection Which is a foreign or nonself substance? - ANSWERSantigens
Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient? - ANSWERSpassive Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient? - ANSWERShaptens It is true that immunoglobulin E (IgE) is: - ANSWERSprimary cause of common allergies Which statement is true regarding immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies? - ANSWERSthe j chain anchors together the IGa molecules Which criteria influence the degree of immunogenicity? - ANSWERSforeginness to host appropriate size appropriate quanity chemical complexity Which statement is true regarding a type IV allergic reaction? - ANSWERScan be transferred by cell Which statement best describes a type I reaction? - ANSWERSMost type I reactions are allergic. What antibody binds to a mast cell? - ANSWERScytotropic Histamine release leads to which of the following? - ANSWERSBronchial smooth muscle contraction Bronchoconstriction Edema Which definition is true? - ANSWERSAllergy means the deleterious effects of hypersensitivity. The Arthus reaction is an example of which type of sensitivity reaction? - ANSWERSIII because its immune complex mediated Which is an example of an alloimmune disease? - ANSWERSGraves disease Which statement is true regarding hypersensitivity reactions? - ANSWERSThey require sensitization against a particular antigen. Which statement is true regarding unmatched packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions? - ANSWERSPeople with O type blood have neither A or B antigens.
Which statement characterizes radiation therapy? - ANSWERSRadiation is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures. Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding caretaker genes? - ANSWERSCaretaker genes encode proteins that repair damaged deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Loss of function results in increased mutation rates. Loss of function can cause increase rates of specific cancers. Which virus(es) is(are) linked to the development of cancer? - ANSWERShep B C Epstein Barr HPV Which statement regarding tumors is true? - ANSWERSCancer refers to a malignant tumor. Which statement is true regarding metastasis? - ANSWERSMetastasis occurs through the vascular and lymphatic systems. What is the term for cancers originating in connective tissue? - ANSWERSSarcoma Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - ANSWERSIt is able to spread far from the tissue of origin. Physical activity reduces the risk of which type(s) of cancer? - ANSWERSbrest colon Obesity results in a higher risk of death from which cancers? - ANSWERSEsophageal Kidney Colorectal A person drinks alcohol in excessive quantities. Which areas are likely to develop cancer related to alcohol consumption? - ANSWERSoral cavity larynx pharynx liver Which statements are true regarding melanoma? - ANSWERSMelanoma may suddenly appear without warning. Individuals with fair skin and hair color are at risk for melanoma. Individuals with a history of three or more sunburns are at risk for melanoma. It is true that tobacco smoking: - ANSWERSHas been declining among U.S. adults since 1997.
Which statement is not true regarding the body's defense mechanisms against cell damage? - ANSWERSThe two systems are xenobiotic and antioxidant. Which statement is true concerning the association of adiposity with cancer? - ANSWERSAn association between body mass index (BMI) and breast cancer mortality risk exists. Air pollution is associated with cancer. Which statements pertaining to this association are true? - ANSWERSRadon exposure can occur in underground mines and in homes. Ground level ozone is the major component of smog Indoor air pollution is considered worse than outdoor air pollution. A man has worked with asbestos in his career for longer than 40 years. Which cancer is he most likely to develop? - ANSWERSLung Which statement is true regarding basal cell carcinoma (BCC)? - ANSWERSBCC is most commonly found on sun-exposed areas of the body. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? - ANSWERSUV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is associated with defects of the p53 tumor-suppressor gene? - ANSWERSLi-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) Which drug and environmental exposures are linked to the risk of developing childhood cancers? - ANSWERSIonizing radiation Pesticide exposure Anabolic adrenergic steroids Which statement is true concerning the prognosis of childhood cancers? - ANSWERSMore than 80% of childhood cancers are cured. Which virus has been linked with the development of cancer? - ANSWERSEpstein-Barr Which statement concerning a multifactorial cause is true? - ANSWERSThe interaction of many factors most likely produces cancer. Which statement is true regarding childhood cancer? - ANSWERSLeukemia is the most common malignancy in children. It is true that embryonic tumors: - ANSWERSAre undifferentiated.
Which structures are considered part of the acinus? - ANSWERSRespiratory bronchioles Alveolar ducts Alveoli Which statement is true regarding the lower airways? - ANSWERSThe right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. Which structures are considered part of the upper airway? - ANSWERSNasopharynx Oropharynx Which steps are involved in the process of gas exchange? - ANSWERSVentilation Diffusion Perfusion Which characteristic is true regarding an individual with emphysema? - ANSWERSIncreased compliance also decrease elastic recoil Which alterations involved with aging are considered normal? - ANSWERSIncreased flow resistance Alterations in gas exchange Loss of recoil What process describes the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) for oxygen? - ANSWERSRespiration Which receptor monitors the pH, partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2) in arterial blood, and partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) in arterial blood? - ANSWERSCentral chemoreceptors Which statement is true regarding the pulmonary system? - ANSWERSThe larynx connects the upper and lower airways. Which statements are true regarding viral pneumonia? - ANSWERSViral pneumonia can set the stage for a secondary bacterial infection. Viral pneumonia is usually mild and self-limiting. Which statement is true regarding bronchiolitis? - ANSWERSBronchiolitis is an inflammatory obstruction of the small airways. Which is the most common cause of pulmonary edema? - ANSWERSHeart disease Which pathogen is commonly associated with a pneumonia that is acquired while in the hospital? - ANSWERSPseudomonas aeruginosa
Which disease is associated with bulbous enlargement of the distal segments of the fingers? - ANSWERSCystic fibrosis Which statement is true regarding the pathophysiologic process of asthma? - ANSWERSInflammation results in airway hyperresponsiveness. Which term describes a hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough that continues for at least 3 months of the year for a minimum of 2 consecutive years - ANSWERSChronic bronchitis What is the term used to describe a respiratory infection that results in pus in the pleural space? - ANSWERSEmpyema How is tuberculosis spread from person to person? - ANSWERSAir droplet Which statement is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? - ANSWERSARDS can trigger severe pulmonary edema. What is the appropriate term for inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands? - ANSWERSHypoventilation A person has respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing and apnea. What is the appropriate term for this breathing? - ANSWERSCheyne-Stokes Which statements are true regarding children's airways? - ANSWERSAirway narrowing significantly affects resistance. Airway obstruction occurs earlier in infants than it does in children. Children have more cartilage in their airways than do adults. Which illness results in a unilateral swelling of the pharynx, fever, sore throat, dysphasia, trismus, and pooling of saliva? - ANSWERSPeritonsillar abscess Which statement is true regarding stridor? - ANSWERSExpiratory stridor is also called a monophonic wheeze. Which statement is true regarding laryngotracheobronchitis? - ANSWERSThe highest incidence of laryngotracheobronchitis occurs in late fall and winter. Which statement is true regarding angioedema? - ANSWERSAn allergic phenomenon generally causes angioedema.
