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PEAT Exam 1 Actual Exam 2025 | Complete
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- In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of the hand includes wrist: A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------A. The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the position from which the optimal function is most likely to occur. This position is described as a) slight wrist extension b) slight ulnar deviationc) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP & DIP joints and d) thumb slightly abducted.
- During pregnancy, which of the following is contraindicated? A. curl-ups B. bridging C. double leg lifts D. deep breathing with forced expiration ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched abdominal muscles are
unable to stabilize the lower back, as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscle and cause damage to the spinal joints.
- A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a training program in order to: A. regulate exercise intensity B. estimate energy expenditure C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------A. Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively lower linear relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that the appropriate exercise intensity is being achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2 consumption that is then calculated into calories metabolized during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at specific HR. Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is unsafe for the majority of patient population.
- A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces which of the following clinical findings? A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quadriceps weakness C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or perineum
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the trunk ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for this patient. Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.
- Which skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing? A. Reduction in sensation B. Decrease elasticity of the skin C. Decrease epidermal proliferation D. Change in pigmentation ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Wounds heal via a complex process involving re- epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of epidermal proliferation decreases.
- Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching an IDDM patient about foot care? A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the directions are followed, then demonstrate procedure B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch patient's performance C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that amputation results from unattended skin problems D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give feedback on patient's performance ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill and effective strategies to teach psychomotor skills include repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by feedback from the therapist to highlight what was performed
correctly and what areas need improvement. Reassurance about prevention of infection with proper foot care would primarily be a cognitive skill and does not ensure that the patient can effectively perform proper foot care. Options B & C do not include feedback that informs the patient about their performance.
- For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOSTappropriate rehabilitation goal would be: A. prevention of contractures and determine method of mobility B. preservation of strength and muscle tone C. inhibition of abnormal tone and facilitation of normal movement and position reaction D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. Goals of PT intervention for a child with DMD are to retard the development of contracture and muscle weakness, which could lead to functional limitations and thus disability. The PT would also play a role in determining the appropriate use of assistive devices that could help maintain the child's mobilitysuch as wheelchairs, walkers and orthoses. Muscle tone changes and decline in strength cannot be prevented since they are results of the disease process.
- A patient with complete long thoracic nerve injury would have difficulty in: A. putting hand in the back pocket. B. bending toward the involved side. C. taking a deep breath.
improvement of quality of care. This includes ongoing review and evaluation of the PT services provided. Utilization and peer review are two types of review processes.
- Which of the following is the BEST documentation exercise of a goal? A. The therapist will reduce patient's hip flexion contracture to neutral B. The patient will ambulate 75 feet independently in 3 weeks C. The therapist will reduce patient's pain from 7/10 to 3/ D. The patient will understand how to increase ADL in 4 weeks ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B. A goal should include the following elements: a) Audience; who will exhibit the skill, b) Behavior; what the person will do, c) Condition; under what circumstances (the position, the equipment that must be available for the patient to perform the behavior), d) Degree; how well will the behavior be done, e) Time span; set an anticipated specific time span in which the goal will be achieved, and f) Measurable; the outcome must be measurable. Option B meets all the criteria while the otherresponses do not.
- Patient has a limited ankle dorsiflexion following ORIF of distal tibia. Radiographs reveal that the fracture is well healed.Treatment with passive mobilization should include: A. posterior glide of talus on tibia B. lateral glide of calcaneus on tibia. C. posterior glide of tibia on talus D. anterior glide of talus on tibia. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. The trochlea of the talus is convex. Therefore, during dorsiflexion of the ankle, the talus moves posteriorly relative to the tibia. To facilitate movement of
dorsiflexion, one would need to perform a posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
- A patient who recently and successfully completed a 12 week program of phase III cardiac rehabilitation will MOST likely demonstrate a decrease in: A. CO2 elimination in maximal work B. cardiac output in maximal work C. stroke volume at a given level of submaximal work D. heart rate at a given level of submaximal work ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------- --------D. Aerobic conditioning that occurs during the 12 weeks of cardiac rehab will result in a decrease HR both at rest and with exercise. CO2 elimination and cardiac output would both increase with maximal work. The stroke volume would increase during submaximal work.
- The demographic information on the subject in a research study list a mean age of 32 and median of 35. The difference between the median and mean indicates: A. the value of standard deviation score B. the value of the Z score C. that the distribution is skewed D. that the two measures should be average ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- --C. A normally distributed sample has a median and mean that are equal in value. In that type of distribution, the median and mean would be at the halfway point. One half of the scores (50%) would be distributed above the median and one half below. If the median and mean are not of equal value, the distribution is skewed. If the median is of a higher value than the mean, the distribution is to the left, if lower, it is skewed to the right. The standard
lesser its ability to produce tension. Therefore, exercising with knee straight put the gastrocnemius on a stretch, increasing its ability to produce tension.
- Redness on the inferior aspect of the patella upon removal of a patellar tendon bearing prosthesis indicates that the residual limb: A. is not far enough into the prosthesis and fewer socks should be worn B. is not far enough into the prosthesis and additional socks should be worn C. has slipped too far into the prosthesis and fewer socks should be worn D. has slipped too far into the prosthesis and additional socks should be worn ----- ----CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. The residual limb is pistoning up and down because the socket diameter is too large or the suspension system is inadequate, resulting in skin friction. The addition of more socks will enhance fit.
- A therapist is evaluating a patient with an acute lumbar disc protrusion and a right lateral shift of the thoracic spine. Which of the following findings would be the BEST indicator that the symptoms will respond positively to the PT intervention? A. The pain is referred only to the buttock and not the thigh. B. The patient prefers standing and walking than sitting. C. There is a decrease in lumbar lordosis. D. Repeated backward bending centralizes the pain. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------D. The fact that backward bending is centralizing the pain is an indicator that the nucleus of the disc is being moved centrally and the pressure is being taken off the nerve root. Centralization of the pain is also a good indicator for PT intervention.
- A therapist evaluates a patient who has lateral epicondylitis. The patient reports a subjective pain of 8/10. The patient also reports pain and shows weakness with resisted wrist extension. The therapist decides to use ice massage as an intervention. The MOST appropriate length of time for the ice massage is: A. ten minutes B. until the area turns red and patient reports burning sensation C. until the patient reports that the area is numb D. no longer than five minutes ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Ice massage is usually applied to control pain, edema and inflammation. In this case, the ice would be used for pain relief and to reduce inflammation, if present. The dosage for ice massage is determined by the patient's response, and usually applied until the patient experiences analgesia or reported numbness over the area of massage. Although 5 to 10 minutes may be a usual time for the response to occur, the dosage depends on the patient's response, not the exact time. The patient will usually feel the following sequential sensations during the massage: cold, burning, aching and then finally numbness. The desired effect is numbness, not aching. The skin may turn white, however, the desired effect is numbness or pain reduction and not skin color.
- Following spinal joint mobilization procedure, a patient calls the therapist and reports a minor dull ache in the treated area of the back that lasted for 2 to 3 hours. Based on this symptom, the therapist should: A. consider a possible neurological lesion in the area B. refer the patient back to the physician C. inform the patient that the response is common D. add strengthening exercises to the home program. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Joint mobilization
D. Segmental postural drainage using standard positions throughout the day. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. A patient who is bed bound and immobile will be prone to developing atelectasis (partial collapse of lung tissue); which can lead to pneumonia. Frequent position changes with deep breathing and coughing will help prevent development of atelectasis. Given that this patient is elderly and does not have diagnosis of secretion retention, vigorous percussion and vibration is not indicated. Vibration with the head down or standard postural drainage positions will not be tolerated in this elderly patient with chronic CHF.
- Which diagnostic procedure is LEAST likely to confirm suspected disc herniation in a patient with low back pain? A. MRI scan B. CAT scan C. Radiograph D. Myelogram ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Radiographs are in orthopedics to detect bony abnormalities. Soft tissue defects such as disc herniations would not show up on the radiograph. MRI scans are used to assess degenerative diseases, infarction, tumor, hemorrhage and congenital anomalies. Myelography is used to assess bone displacement, disc herniation, cord compression or tumor. Computed tomography (CAT scan) is used to assess the density, displacement of abnormality of the ventricular system and gray and white matter.
- To help the students apply newly learned skill to clinical practice, the MOST effective action for the clinical instructor to take is to:
A. point our possible patient situations and discuss how the skill would apply to them. B. have the students research reference materials and compile a list of the steps required in the acquisition of the skill C. prepare a list of indications and contraindications for the skill. D. have the students provide examples of patient situations where the skill would be appropriately applied. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Behavioral objective should be learner centered, outcome oriented, specific, and measurable. Option D is the only onethat is learner (student) oriented and specific to a situation. Options A & C require action by the clinical instructor, not the student. Option C, which may be a step in the process is not as learner centered or outcome centered as option D.
- It is important to perform cool down exercises immediately following a general aerobic program PRIMARILY in order to prevent: A. venous pooling B. cardiac arrhythmia C. decrease body temperature D. muscle tightening ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. During aerobic exercise, there is vascular dilation that occurs in order to optimize blood flow and the venous system relies on muscular pumping in order to return blood back to the heart. Without a cool-down period, there would be no muscular pumping and therefore blood would pool in the venous system. Cardiac arrhythmia may occur as well, but is less likely in someone without cardiac disease. Cessation of activity by itself would result in gradual decrease in body temperature and specific exercises are not necessary. Muscle tightening may occur as a result of metabolites accumulating in the circulatory system, but this would occur as a result of the venous pooling.
C. evaluate existing services and community resources. D. initiate contacts in the medical community to establish prescriptive relationships. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The most appropriate first step (pre-planning) would be to evaluate existing services within the community and work out a budget for the project. Options A & B, although important, are things that would most likely be done after the practice is up and running. Option D may be done early on in the planning process, but would follow option C.
- To prevent contractures in a patient with an above-knee amputation (transfemoral), emphasis should be placed on designing a positioning program that maintains ROM in hip: A. flexion and abduction B. extension and adduction C. adduction and lateral rotation D. flexion and medial rotation. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B. Following an above knee amputation (transfemoral), the residual limb has tendency to develop contractures in the hipflexors and abductors. Therefore, it is particularly important that the patient be positioned so as to maintain full ROM in hip extension and adduction.
- After a long-term history of bilateral lower extremity vascular insufficiency, an otherwise healthy patient had a right above- knee amputation. For this patient, which of the following is the MOST important factor in establishing long-term goals for functional walking? A. Status of the wound at the amputation site. B. ROM of the right hip.
C. Condition of the left lower extremity D. Ability to maintain upright posture. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The left limb must function as the main support limb. Any treatment strategy for ambulation must ensure that the remaining limb is optimally functioning and that the limb is healthy. While the other factors are relevant, the integrity of the remaining limb is the greatest concern for this patient establishing long term functional goals.
- A patient is referred to physical therapy complaining of severe pain in the right hip and groin area, which increases during walking. The patient complains of tenderness when the therapist palpates the area over the right greater trochanter. The MOST likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms is: A. sacroiliac joint derangement B. a hip fracture C. a strain of the adductor longus muscle D. hip bursitis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Signs and symptoms of hip bursitis include the following: severe pain over the bursa area, with pain aggravated by active motion including activities such as walking. Signs and symptoms of a sacroiliac joint derangement include pain directly over the region of the joint and in the low back, in addition to pain with walking. Signs and symptoms of hip fracture will include the following: severe pain in the groin area and tenderness occurs in the area anterior to the femoral neck. An adductor longus muscle strain would not cause tenderness over the greater trochanter.
- A therapist is conducting a 12-minute walk test with a patient who has COPD and uses 2 L/min of O2 by nasal cannula. The patient's resting O2 saturation is 91 % and the resting heart rate is 110 bpm. The O2 flow should be increased if the: A. patient's CO2 level starts to increase
B. Walking sideways. C. Walking backward. D. Moving from sitting position to standing position. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------C. Of the four options, backward walking is the only one that requires hip extension with concurrent knee flexion and hip flexion with knee extension.
- A patient was injured in a motor vehicle accident two days ago, resulting in quadriplegia at C6 level. When providing PROM to the UE, which of the following is MOST critical in order to optimize long-term hand function? A. Passive wrist and finger extension exercise to gain maximum stretch of the finger flexors B. Passive wrist and finger flexion exercise to gain maximum stretch of the finger extensors. C. Holding the wrist in flexion when passively extending the fingers. D. Holding the wrist in extension when passively extending the fingers. --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. This patient needs to have functional benefits of tenodesis by allowing the finger flexors to shorten with the wrist extended; therefore, PROM of the finger flexors should be performed with the wrist in non- functional position of flexion. People with C6-C7 quadriplegia use the tenodesis grasp. This allows the fingers to flex with wrist extension and to open with wrist flexion.
- An athlete sustained a severe inversion sprain of the right ankle while playing basketball. To provide strapping support for the ankle, pressure and support should be applied over the tendons of the: A. flexor digitorum longus and tibialis posterior B. gastrocnemius and flexor hallucis longus
C. peroneus longus and brevis D. tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. With an inversion injury, the tendons of peroneus longus and brevis can become strained. Swelling with an inversion strain usually occurs over the anterolateral part of the ankle. Compression and support is most beneficial by placing tape stirrups on the lateral side of the ankle, over the tendons of the peroneus longus and brevis and pulling the ankle into slight eversion.
- In which of the following conditions would a nerve conduction velocity test be MOST important? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Cerebrovascular accident C. Myotonia D. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. Nerve conduction velocity testing is most useful in the evaluation of peripheral nerve or lower motor neuron status. Therefore, since carpal tunnel syndrome is the only one of the conditions that directly involves a peripheral nerve, it would be the most appropriate choice. A cerebrovascular accident is an upper motor neuron disorder. Both myotonia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy are primary muscle disorders.
- When training a patient to increase muscle activity with the use of EMG biofeedback, the therapist should adjust the unit so that sensitivity: A. starts at low and increases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity B. starts high and decreases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity
