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The PEAT Exam 2 Actual Exam 2025 PDF is a comprehensive study guide for physical therapy students preparing for the second PEAT exam. This document includes complete questions and correct answers, accompanied by detailed rationales, ensuring that students understand the reasoning behind each correct response. It is a newly released, verified version, graded A+, providing the latest information to help students excel in their exams. The content covers a range of clinical scenarios, offering insights into appropriate decision-making processes within a physical therapy context. For instance, it addresses the appropriate consultation for a patient being discharged post-cerebrovascular accident, emphasizing the role of medical social workers in coordinating home and rehabilitative services. It also includes guidance on handling an athlete's skin reaction to adhesive strapping, where immediate actions are outlined.
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A patient who sustained a mild cerebrovascular accident 3 weeks ago is being prepared by the physical therapist for discharge to home and an adult day program. To facilitate the discharge plan, the MOST appropriate health professional for the therapist to consult with is the: A. skilled nursing coordinator. B. occupational therapist. C. medical social worker. D. primary physician. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Medical social services deal with home situations, financial supports and acts as a resource director on behalf of the patient. Social services would be the most appropriate choice to help arrange and coordinate rehabilitative services for this patient while they are at home. Although nurses, occupational therapists, physical therapists and physicians may all be involved with direct patient care, they would not be the most appropriate for this level of discharge planning. A physical therapist examines a high school athlete in the training room. After removing the adhesive strapping from the athlete's ankle, the therapist discovers that the athlete has developed an open weepy rash on the instep of the foot. The therapist should FIRST: A. apply moist heat to the foot. B. send the patient to a hospital emergency room.
C. use more pre-wrap with the next joint taping. D. refer the patient to the team physician. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- D. The open weeping rash may be infected. Skin infections are easily spread in a training room environment, and if not attended to correctly may infect more people. If an infection were suspected, the precise diagnosis would be made by means of a culture. Therefore, the most appropriate action would be to refer the patient to the team physician. Moist heat may increase the infection by increasing blood flow. An emergency room visit would not be indicated at this time. Occluding the wound with more pre-wrap creates an environment ideal for infection. A patient who sustained a left transtibial amputation 2 years ago and a right transtibial amputation 3 weeks ago is being evaluated for possible walking with prosthesis. Which of the following factors is MOST relevant? A. Size of the right residual limb scar B. Length of the right residual limb C. Proficiency in previous prosthetic use D. Severity of phantom pain ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The previously amputated left limb must function as the main support limb. Any treatment strategy for ambulation must ensure that the left limb is functioning optimally. While the other factors are relevant, the previous ability of the patient to ambulate is the greatest concern. A prone standing board has been recommended for a 5 year-old child with severe hypotonia. The PRIMARY purpose for the use of a prone stander is to:
A patient spilled boiling water on the right arm when reaching for a pan on the stove. The forearm, elbow, and lower half of the upper arm appear blistered and red, with some subcutaneous swelling and pain on touch. To facilitate optimal function, the physical therapist should PRIMARILY emphasize: A. range of motion exercises to the right hand, wrist, and elbow. B. application of compression dressings. C. sterile whirlpool to the right upper extremity. D. splinting of the right upper extremity in full elbow extension. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. The patient will be reluctant to move the limb because it is painful. ROM is essential to regain and maintain a functional ROM. In this case, the physical therapist's primary goal is to restore function with ROM exercises. Compression dressings, whirlpool, and splinting, are all acceptable aspects of care that help in the restoration of ROM. However, functional ROM would be the primary goal. A physical therapist plans to study the effect of cold compresses on passive range of motion in a group of 10 patients. The plan is to apply these compresses to the hamstring muscles 1 time/day for 5 days. Which of the following experimental designs is MOST appropriate for this type of study? A. For both the experimental and control groups, gather data from patient records. B. For both the experimental and control groups, measure range of motion of both groups on day 5. C. For both the experimental and control groups, measure range of motion on days 1 and 5.
D. For the experimental group, measure range of motion every day. For the control group, measure range of motion on days 1 and 5. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The most appropriate design would be a two-group pretest-posttest. Both groups are measured at the same times, but only the experimental group receives treatment. Gathering information from patient records may not provide the same accuracy as if the researcher had performed all of the measurements directly. Measuring ROM only on day 5 would not account for any pretest differences between groups. During an examination of elbow strength using MMT, the patient supinates the forearm when attempting elbow flexion. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely doing the major part of the work? A. Biceps brachii B. Brachialis C. Supinator D. Brachioradialis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. The biceps brachii is both an elbow flexor and supinator, and it is most effective as a supinator with the elbow flexed to about 90° (approximately the muscle testing position). The brachialis does not cause supination (only flexion). The supinator does not flex the elbow. The brachioradialis would move the forearm to a midposition rather than fully supinating it. Therefore, when the elbow both flexes and supinates the biceps brachii would be the most likely muscle causing this action A patient slips, falls, and cuts her arm in the clinic. The cut is bleeding and the patient is alert and well oriented. In performing first aid for the patient, the FIRST action that the physical therapist should take is to:
would be an option, but the therapist should be ready to listen to the patient, encourage expression of feelings and avoid denial. A physical therapist examines a patient who reports foot pain while jogging. The examination shows that the patient has excessive foot pronation and forefoot varus. The therapist decides to try a temporary orthotic insert in the patient's running shoe. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate orthotic insert? A. A lateral forefoot post under the 5th metatarsal head B. A lateral rearfoot post under the calcaneus placed in an everted position C. A wedge placed under the instep of the medial foot just beneath the head of the talus D. A medial post just proximal to the 1st metatarsal head ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Pronation of the foot can be caused by a variety of factors including calcaneal eversion and forefoot varus. Correction of the pronation by an orthosis could include a medial post (wedge) placed just proximal to the metatarsal heads or a medial post under the calcaneus. This approach involves bringing the ground up to meet the foot. A post under the fifth metatarsal head would accentuate the problem, as would a rearfoot post placing the calcaneus in an everted position. If the patient has excessive forefoot varus, a wedge may be placed in the instep in addition to the medial wedge proximal to the metatarsal heads to distribute the load; however a wedge in the instep by itself would not be the best intervention.
Although knee motion occurs primarily in 1 plane, tibial rotation is possible when the knee is positioned in 90° or more of flexion because in this position the: A. condyles of the femur glide posteriorly on the condyles of the tibia. B. hamstrings act as a rotating force. C. patella deviates inferiorly. D. tension on the ligaments is decreased. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. When the knee is extended the medial and lateral collateral ligaments are taut. During knee flexion the ligaments slacken. Therefore there is very little tibial rotation when the knee is extended (closed packed position) and approximately 40° of axial rotation with the knee flexed. Although the femoral condyles may glide posteriorly (depending on the direction of rotation) on the tibia and the hamstrings may rotate the tibia, the reason the motion is available is due to laxity in the collateral ligaments. Other ligaments such as the cruciates and the joint capsule may add to the stability in the closed packed position. A postural correction program for a patient with forward head, kyphosis, and increased lumbar lordosis should include all of the following EXCEPT: A. strengthening the scapular protractors. B. strengthening the thoracic erector spinae muscles. C. lengthening the short suboccipital muscles. D. lengthening the lumbar erector spinae muscles. ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------A.
indicated since it may increase the edema. Resistive exercises for the wrist and fingers may aggravate the compression in the carpal tunnel. A patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being treated with a regimen that includes pursed-lipped breathing exercises. The PRIMARY purpose of the pursed-lipped breathing is to: A. help prevent the collapse of pulmonary airways during exhalation thereby reducing air trapping. B. decrease the removal of carbon dioxide during ventilation. C. increase the residual volume of respiration so that more oxygen is available for body metabolism. D. stimulate further mobilization of mucous secretions to higher air passages where they can be expectorated. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. A patient with COPD has premature collapse of the airways upon exhalation, which leads to air trapping and ultimately poor gas exchange. Breathing out through pursed-lips slows the airflow and creates a back pressure which helps to prevent the airways from collapsing while exhaling. By exhaling more fully through pursed-lips, more carbon dioxide is removed. By preventing airway collapse and air trapping in the lungs, the residual volume is actually decreased. Pursed-lipped breathing helps with ventilation, but does not necessarily assist with secretion mobilization. A patient with a diagnosis of cervical radiculopathy reports numbness of the right little finger (5th digit). The physical therapist will MOST likely find a diminished tendon reflex in the:
A. biceps brachii B. deltoid C. triceps brachii D. brachioradialis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The dermatome providing sensation to the little finger is innervated by the C nerve root. The triceps brachii is the only one of the muscles listed that is also innervated by the C8 nerve root. The biceps brachii, deltoid and brachioradialis are innervated by the C5, C6, and sometimes C7 nerve roots In a suction-socket prosthesis, the PRIMARY function of the valve in the lower and medial part of the socket is to permit air to: A. remain during the stance phase of gait. B. remain during the swing phase of gait. C. escape during the swing phase of gait. D. escape during the stance phase of gait. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- D. Air is released during the stance phase of gait, which results in a negative pressure inside the socket to provide a suction suspension during the swing phase.
The therapist is shown performing an ulnar glide which is the same joint motion used for radial deviation. Limited motion in this direction indicates limited ability to perform radial deviation. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder flexion and medial (internal) rotation includes mobilization. What glide is MOST appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to specifically increase the restricted motions? A. Posterior B. Anterior C. Medial Lateral ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A. The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing both shoulder flexion and medial (internal) rotation would be posterior (dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint distraction technique. Medial glide would not be appropriate to increase flexion and medial (internal) rotation. Anterior glide is used to increase extension and lateral (external) rotation. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for a patient with low postural tone? A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on a treatment bolster B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscles C. Low-frequency vibration to the back muscles
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulders to the trunk --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Options A, B and C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for this patient. Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone. What skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing? A. Reduction in sensation B. Decreased elasticity of the skin C. Decreased epidermal proliferation D. Change in pigmentation ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. Wounds heal via a complex process involving re-epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of epidermal proliferation decreases. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes about foot care? A. Reassure the patient that no infections will occur if the directions are followed, then demonstrate procedures. B. Tell the patient how foot care is performed, then watch the patient's performance.
The demographic information of the participants in a research study lists a mean age of 32 and median age of 35. The difference between the median and mean indicates: A. the value of the standard deviation score. B. the value of the Z-score. C. that the distribution is skewed. that the 2 measures should be averaged ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. A "normally distributed" sample has a median and a mean that are equal in value. In that type of distribution, the median and mean would be at the halfway point. One-half of the scores (50 percent) would be distributed above the median and one-half below. If the median and mean are not of equal value, the distribution is skewed. If the median is of a higher value than the mean, the distribution is skewed to the left, if lower it is skewed to the right. The standard deviation is a measure of the variability of the mean. The Z-score is a standard score with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of one. Averaging the two measures would not be appropriate or meaningful A physical therapist is treating a young athlete with gastrocnemius muscle strength of Fair plus (3+/5). In the prone position, which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to maximize strengthening? A. Resistive exercises with the knee bent B. Resistive exercises with the knee straight C. Active assistive exercises with the knee bent
D. Active assistive exercises with the knee straight ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------B. With a muscle grade of Fair plus, the patient should not need active assistive exercise. Resistive exercise against gravity would be most appropriate to strengthen this muscle. Since the gastrocnemius crosses both the knee and ankle, bending the knee would put the gastrocnemius in a shortened position and lessen its ability to produce tension. Therefore, exercising with the knee straight would put the gastrocnemius on stretch, increasing its ability to produce tension. Following spinal joint mobilization procedures, a patient calls the therapist and reports a minor dull ache in the treated area of the back that lasted for 2 to 3 hours. Based on this symptom, the therapist should: A. consider a possible neurological lesion in the area. B. refer the patient back to the physician. C. inform the patient that this response is common. D. add strengthening exercises to the home program. ---------CORRECT ANSWER--- --------------C. Joint mobilization procedures may cause some soreness. The therapist should inform the patient of this response to treatment. The therapist should re- evaluate the patient and could alter the treatment by waiting an extra day before the next treatment or by decreasing the dosage. There would not be a need to refer to the physician. The addition of exercises would not alter the response and there would be no indication of neurological involvement with the reported symptoms
B. have the students research reference materials and compile a list of the steps required to acquire the skill. C. prepare a list of indications and contraindications for the skill. D. have the students provide examples of patient situations where the skill would be appropriately applied. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Behavioral objectives should be learner centered, outcome oriented, specific, and measurable. Option D is the only one that is learner (student) centered and specific to a situation. Options A and C require action by the clinical instructor, not the student. Option B, which may be a step in the process, is not as learner centered or outcome centered as Option D.