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PENN FOSTER VETERINARY
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM
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Oral drugs should never be adminsitered in animals that are - Vomiting Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most and effective administration - Rapid An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every hours - 72 A Simplex (gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to animals - large Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log - Date, owner's name, patient's name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name(s) of personnel administering the drug to the patient Why should drugs be given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration? - The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective List 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use - luer-lock, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter tip A tuberculin syringe holds up to mL of medication - 1 A(n) is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation - Counter irritant What type of syringe is divided into units rather than mls? - insulin syringe A(n) will usually separate after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose - suspension Which syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe? - Luer-Lok tip All of the following are sites for IV administration in small animals except a. jugular vein
b. carotid artery c. lateral saphenous vein d. phalic vein - b. carotid artery
What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects - Bradycardia and hypotension can be antagonized by using atropine, respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression can be antagonized by using yohimbine Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog? - Thiobarbiturates are fat soluble which means fat acts like a sponge to take barbiturate out of circulation and away from CNS. thin animals will not absorb as much in to fat tissues and more will remain in bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? - Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, loss of blink reflex. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose - Respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures List two narcotic antagonists - naloxone and nalorphine Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? - Because it tends to precipitate out of solution when stored you are assisting the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route? - Doxapram (Dopram) may be administered under tongue or into umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection. Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as Class III controlled substances? - Some pentobarbital agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. They are easily identified as euthanasia agents and have less potential for abuse All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering activity in the brain. - Neurotransmitter Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause at the injection site - Burning A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is - Propofol An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is - GABA
A benzodiazepine that s used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is - Diazepam An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for separation anxiety in dogs is - Clomicalm is used to treat old-dog dementia - Anipryl The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures. - endocrine The nervouse system is under voluntary control - Somatic the is the fundamental unit of the nervous system - neuron Axons carry electric-like messages (from) the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages (from) the nerve cell. - Away: toward Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs, and that is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis. T/F? - False the ANS is that portion of the nervous system that controls body activities. - Unconscious the neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is - acetylchoine Epinephrine is responsible for all of the following except a. can cause an increase in metabolic rate b. can cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow d. can constrict blood vessels in the skin. - c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow Xylazine is antagonized by - Yohimbine All of the following are benzodiazepines except a. yohimbine b. diazepam c. alprazolam d. lorazepam - a. yohimbine
What structures constitute the urinary system? - Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients. - Rompun and ketaset Renal damage bay be categorized as , , or - Prerenal, renal, postrenal. Explain how diuretics work - Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - Potassium (K) ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to - Angiotensin II Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of uroliths. - Struvite The renal cortex produces ; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative in its production. - Erythopoietin; decrease Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretics? - Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium Where is ADH secreted? - posterior pituitary gland The ureters - Originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder Persistently high blood pressure is known as - Hypertension Diuretics are used to remove fluid. - Extracellular Antidiuretic hormone is normally secreted by the pituitary gland - Postererior What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - Potassium Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of - uroliths is a medical term for bloody urine - hematuria What part of the kidney is responsible for the reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances? - Tubules
A relatively long is important to cardiac cells to prevent a Patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function T/F - False Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of - Sodium Why is the heart considered to be two pumps functionally? - The right atrium and right ventricle serve functionally as one pump for ejecting blood into the lungs and the left atrium and left ventricle pump blood to systemic circulation. Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membranes to form a - Syncytium (interconnected mass) Depolarizatoin of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of ions, a slower influx of ions and the outflow of ions - Sodium (Na+), Calcium (Ca2+) and potassium (K+) constant state of contraction from recycling impulses. - Refractory period Define chronotropic and inotropic effects in the relation to the heart. - Chronotropic refers to the rate of contraction where inotropic refers to force of contraction Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart. - Preload is volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole (amt of blood that must be pumped out) and afterload is the resistance in the arteries that the ventricle must overcome to pump blood.) List the four basic compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system - Increasing heart rate, increasing stroke volume, increasing efficiency of heart muscle, heart enlargement List five objectives of treatment for heart failure. - Control rhythm disturbances, maintain or increase cardiac output, relieve fluid accumulations, increase the O2 of bood, and provide O2/sedatives. List four beneficial effects and one potential toxic effect of the use of the cardiac glycosides. - Beneficial= improved cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic effect, decreased signs of dyspnea Toxic= vomiting. Catecholamines such as epinephrine are used in veterinary cardiology primarily for
- Stimulation of cardiac contraction in cardiac arrest
What are the primary goals of the dietary management of heart disease? - Sodium restriction and maintenance of good body weight and condition. List three effects of administration of catecholamines. - increased force of contraction, inscrease in blood preasure, elvated glucose levels The heart is a chambered pump that is responsible for moving blood through the vascular system - Four is a faster-than-normal heart rate - tachycardia When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardia muscles or abnormalities of the conduction system, may occur - Arrhythmia List the ways by which the cardiovascular system may increase its output during times of need, such as during athletic performance or to compensate for cardiac disease. - Increasing stroke volume, increasing efficiency of the heart muscle, physiologic heart enlargement CHS is associated with all of the following except: a. Exercise intolerance b. pulmonary edema c.ascites d. diaphragmatic hernia. - Diaphragmatic hernia Digitalis is a (an). It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant Digitalis purpurea. - Cardiac glycoside Quinidine is an alkaloid that is obtained from cinchona plants or is prepared from quinine. It is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation. Quinidine doses must be in patients who are being treated concurrently with digoxin. - decreased Gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin. T/F - False Concurrent use of NSAIDS may the effectiveness of captopril. - Decrease Furosemide may cause in patients - hypokalemia List three functions of the GI tract - Entry of food and fluid into body, absorption of nutrients and excretion of waste products List three examples of monogastric animals - Dogs, cats, primates
What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation. - Regurgitation is a normal process of ruminants hat allows them to re-masticate food. Vomiting is a forcible expulsion of gastric contents and is generally considered to be pathologic What are the basic control mechanisms of the GI tract - The ANS, hormonal control, and chemical control. What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract - They increase the permeability of intestinal blood vessels, resulting in increased fluid loss. Can also induce fever and initiate shock. The CRTZ simulates vomiting when activated by - Chemical substances (digitalis compounds, urea, ketone bodies, and others) List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics. - Centrally acting= Apomorphine and xylazine. Peripherally acting= syrup of ipecac and mustard Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called - antiemetics H2 Receptor antagonists promote the healing of GI ulcers by - Reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells by binding to H2 receptors List two H2 receptor antagonists. - cimetidine, ranitidine What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns? - Peristalsis (wave of contraction), segmentation (mixing action) Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as - Witholding food for 12 to 24 hours List two species that do not vomit - rats and horses What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? - Retaining water osmotically in the gut. Cause softening of the stool. What is the active ingredient of Metamucil? - psyllium Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? - My mimicking the effect pf acetylcholine A synthetic antibiotic/anti-inflammatory agent used to treat giardiasis and anaerobic bacterial infection in animals is called - Metronidazole List four products that used as a dentifrice/oral cleansing agents - C.E.T, nolvadent, oral Dent, Oxydent
What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in vet met? - to correct a deficiency and to obtain a desired effect Endogenous hormones are those that are produced , whereas exogenous hormones come from sources. - in the body, external Where is the pituitary gland located and what is its function? - The base of the brain ventral to the hypothalamus. Function is to control the activity in other endocrine glands. Describe the difference between positive and negative feedback control mechanism in the endocrine system. - Negative feedback= hypothalamus senses high level of a certain hormone and reduces the amount of releasing facto (RF)for this hormone. Positive feedback is when it senses low level and release more RF to cause increase in trophic hormone. The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through the mechanism - neurohormonal reflex GnRH is classified as a - gonadotropin Hormonal products with "gest" in their name are classified as - Progestins List three potential uses of the prostaglandins in vet med - Estrus synchronization, induction of abortion, induction of estrus Human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to women and individuals with - Pregnant; Asthma Before oxytocin can exert its effects on the uterus, the uterus must first be primed by and - Estrogen and progesterone What precautions should be taken before oxytocin is administered - Reproductive tract should be examined for blockage or torsion and should be verified that cervix is dilated What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? - Triiodothyronine(T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4) List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism. - Soloxine and synthroid List the three major classes of insulin. - Short acting, intermediate acting, long acting. Which form of insulin is used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis? - Regular Which form(s) of insulin must be resuspended before administration? - NPH/PZI/Lente
what are some signs of insulin overdose? - Weakness, ataxia, shaking, and seizures Growth promoters generally should not be used in animals intended for - Breeding purposes Why are anabolic steroids classified as controlled substances? - The potential for abuse by human athletes Which insulin product should be shaken thoroughly prior to use? - Vetsulin what precautions should be taken by pregnant women when Reu-Mate is administered.
- Wear gloves, avoid getting drug on skin Endometrium lines the - - uterus A hormone is one that results in the production of a second hormone within a target gland. - Trophic GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone) is produced in the - Hypothalamus Androgens are female sex hormones produced in the ovaries, adrenal cortex, and testicles. T/F - False Prostaglandins are a group of naturally occurring long-chain fatty acids that mediate various physiologic events in the body. T/F - True causes uterine contractions - Oxytocin Corticosteroids are produced by the - adrenal cortex Pheromones are released by an animal that influences the behavior of other animals of the same species. - Odors Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of in all species - Hypothyroidism Cushing's syndrome is caused by an excess of circulating - Cortisol Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs may be treated with - Lysodren, vetoryl u- 40 syringes have a top - red Insulin should be frozen to prolong it's effectiveness T/F - False Two veterinary-approved insulin products include: - Vetsulin and ProZinc
has been developed for the treatment of otodectes spp. - Acarexx How many milligrams of tropicamide are in a 0.5% solution? - 0.05 mg The skin consists of layers and is part of the system. - Three, integumentary Name seven functions of the skin. - Protection, temperature regulation, storage, immunoregulation, secretion, vitamin D production, and sensory perception Shampoos are most effective if left on the skin about to minutes before rinsing - 5 to 10 Keratolytics and keratoplastics are known as agents. - Antiseborrheic Name the four stages of wound healing - 1. Inflammation
- Debridement
- Repair
- Maturation What does an astringent do to the skin? - drying and cleansing properties Tissue irritation may be caused by counterirritants. T/F - True Patients are commonly presented for skin problems when in reality they may have a illness. - Systemic Why are behavioral-type drugs used in treating skin illness? - To keep the animal from excessive self-licking and /or mutilation. All patients presented for dermatologic problems have an underlying systemic illness. T/F - False The is the largest organ in the body. - Skin Humans have multiple hairs per follicle, but animals have one hair per follicle. T/F - False Shampoos should be left on the animal's skin for 5 to 10 minutes before rinsing. T/F - True The debridement stage of wound healing usually begins to occur about hour(s) after injury. - 6
connective tissue proteins. - Collagen The maturation phase marks the beginning of wound healing. T/F - False. It is the last stage tissue is formed during healing of wounds of the soft tissue that consists of connective tissue cells and ingrown young vessels which ultimately form a scar. - Granulation Different types of bacteria can be distinguished with use of stain. - Gram Gram-Positive bacteria will stain what color? - blue/purple Gram-Negative bacteria will stain what color? - red/pink is appored for use in lactating dairy animals. - Naxcel can cause staining of teeth in young animals - Tetracyclines should never be given intravenously to horses. - Tetracycline Some aminoglycosides may be - toxic and/or - toxic. - Oto; nephro Griseofulvin is used to treat - Dermatophytosis A drug's of activity is the range of bacteria affected by it's action. - spectrum Aerobes are bacteria that require oxygen to live T/F - True A fungicidal agent inhibits the growth of fungi T/F - False. it kills fungi A bacteriostatic agent inhibits the growth of a bacteria T/F - True Penicillin-G benzathine is a long-acting antibiotic that is approved for use in dairy animals. T/F - False All of the following drugs are classified as penicillins except a. cephalexin b. amoxicillin c. ampicillin d. cloxacillin - Cephalexin naxcel is not approved for use in lactating dairy animals T/F - False During the repair phase of wound healing, fibroblasts produce and other
is the most commonly used formamidine in vet met - Amitraz is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines.
- Emodepside/praziquantel (profender) An arsenic compound administered by deep IM injection in the lumbar region is. - Melasomine dihydrochloride. albendazole is the active ingredient found in - Valbazen An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinesterase T/F - True Advantage has greater efficacy against and frontline has a greater efficacy against
- fleas, ticks are parasitic worms, including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lungworms, kidney worms, heartworms, and others. - Nematodes Pain sensation arises in free nerve endings called - Nociceptors List some signs associated with pain in animals - Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, vocalization, guarding the painful site, restlessness, salivation, failure to groom, unresponsiveness, abnormal gait, abnormal stance, and rolling NSAIDs that preferentially inhibit are thought to produce fewer gastrointestinal side effects - COX- 2 What is the most common side effect of the NSAIDs? - GI ulceration and/or bleeding Why are cats so susceptible to aspirin overdose? - Cats metabolize aspirin very slowly Phenylbutazone should be administered parenterally by the subcutaneous route only. T?F - False What Class II opioid is administered via transdermal pouch? - Fentanyl Corticosteroid therapy involves the treatment of the signs of disease and often cures the disease as well. T/F - False. it only treats symptoms. What function do mineralocorticoids serve in the body? - Regulate electrolyte and water balance in the body. List some principles that should be followed concerning corticosteroid therapy. - alternate-day dosing may help prevent iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism; administration
should be tapered off gradually, very large doses may be used in certain emergency situations, should be avoided when corneal ulcers are treated. use aseptic technique when injecting into joints what does the term iatrogenic mean? - caused by the doctor Describe the side effects of short-term and long-term corticosteroid use. - Short term- polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, delayed healing Long term- thinning of the skin, gastric ulcers, osteoporosis and iatrogenic Cushing's disease what are some indications for the use of local anesthetics? - Prevent generation and conduction of nerve impulses by peripheral nerves they are used for infiltrating into local areas for suturing wounds, nerve blocks (lameness examination, antiarrhythmic effects, for topical use etc. The body is able to produce its own opiate-like analgesic agents called - endorphins A substance that can initiate a fever is called a - Pyrogen is also known as acetylsalicylic acid. - aspirin is a pyrazolone derivative - Phenylbutazone DSMO causes when applied topically. - vasodilation is considered (even today) to be the most effective of the opioids - Morphine is(are) a major chemical mediator(s) of the allergic response. - Histamine All of the following are types of corticosteroids except a. dexamethasone b. Predef c. Vetalog d. ketoprofen. - Ketoprofen A local anesthetic such as lidocaine may be the drug of choice when an epidural is performed to replace a prolapsed uterus in a bovine. T/F - True List the four steps involve in the production of pain sensation. - Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception Define windup as it applies to pain production - Central sensitization/hyperalgesia due to repeated stimulation of neurons of the spinothalamic tract
