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PENN FOSTER VETERINARY
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
Questions with 100% Correct
Answers Latest Update 2025
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Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both metabolized by the - Liver Define: Ethical Product - one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement Once a drug has been biotransformed, it is called a - Metabolite A reason to use a drug is a(n) - Indication Diagnostic method of choosing a drug is based on all of the following except a. Practical experience b. Assesment of the patient c. Obtaining a history d. Performing lab tests - A. Practical experience. Define: extralabel - Using a drug in a way not specified by the label Complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is administered is called - Pharmacokinetics Parenteral drugs are administered - by injections. The body's ability to change a drug chemically from the form in which it was administered into a form that can be eliminated from the body is called - Metabolism (biotransformation) Degree to which a drug produces its desired response in a patient is called - efficacy An adverse drug reaction is always life-threatening. T/F? - False List the six practices recommended by the AVMA for the safe disposal of unwanted drugs. - 1.Incinerate when possible
- Send to landfill when incinerated
- Never flush down drain or toilet
- Maintain close inventory control
- Follow state and federal guidelines
- Educate clients on proper disposal techniques. Name 4 common Drug Preparations - Drugs for oral administration, drugs for parenteral administration, drugs for inhalation, and drugs for topical inhalations. Boluses are used in the treatment of - Large animals with a balling gun name two types of parenteral injection forms - injections, implants. Vials may be either dose or dose - single-, multi-
If an IV catheter is not used continuously it should be flushed with heparinized saline every to hours - 8, Cerumen is a substance that is commonly found in what anatomic part of the body? - ear Any patient receiving IV fluid therapy should be monitored every to minutes. - 15, IV tubing should be changed after a to hour period. - 48, 72 When an intramuscular injection is given in the pelvic limb of a dog or cat, the area near the nerve should be avoided. - sciatic Describe the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist - An agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action and an antagonist combines with a receptor to block the action. Define: neurotransmitter - A neurotransmitter is a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity. The area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the - Thalamus Most CNS drugs act by or the effects of neurotransmitters. - Interrupting he generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors? - epinephrine and norepinephrine List the four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS. - mimicking neurotransmitters, interfering with neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents - Control vomiting, treat urinary retention, stimulate GI activity, treat glaucoma and to aid in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class? - Cholinergic blocking agents What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock? - adrenergic (sympathomimetic) Propranolol is an example of which category of drug? - Beta Blocker
What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects - Bradycardia and hypotension can be antagonized by using atropine, respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression can be antagonized by using yohimbine Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog? - Thiobarbiturates are fat soluble which means fat acts like a sponge to take barbiturate out of circulation and away from CNS. thin animals will not absorb as much in to fat tissues and more will remain in bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? - Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, loss of blink reflex. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose - Respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures List two narcotic antagonists - naloxone and nalorphine Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? - Because it tends to precipitate out of solution when stored you are assisting the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route? - Doxapram (Dopram) may be administered under tongue or into umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection. Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as Class III controlled substances? - Some pentobarbital agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. They are easily identified as euthanasia agents and have less potential for abuse All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering activity in the brain. - Neurotransmitter Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause at the injection site - Burning A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is - Propofol An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is - GABA
What structures would a molecule of oxygen pass over or through as it travels from the environment to the alveoli? - Nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles what are the 4 primary functions of the respiratory system? - oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange, regulation of acid base balance, body temperature regulation and voice production. describe the functions of the three basic defense mechnaisms of the respiratory system
- Structures in the nasal passages filter, warm, and humidify inspired air. The cough, sneeze and reverse sneeze attempt to remove foreign material that has entered the respiratory system Mucocilliary mechanism also removes foreign material from the respiratory system. Macrophages and immunoglobulins inactivate or destroy invasive organisms. What are three important principles of respiratory therapeutics? - Control of secretions, control of reflexes, maintenance of normal airflow Expectorants are indicted when what type of cough is present? - Productive Mucolytics decrease the viscosity of respiratory mucous by what mechanism? - Through the breakdown of disulfide chemical bonds. Acetylcysteine is administered by what method for pulmonary uses? - Nebulization What is the mechanism of action of most antitussives used in vet-medicine? - Through depression of the cough center in the brain Codein is classified in what category of controlled substances? - Schedule V List three mechanisms that can cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles - Release of acetylcholine, release of histamine, and blockade of beta 2-adrenergic receptors List two bronchodilators that are beta2-adrenergic agonists - Epinephrine and Albuterol The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellular enzyme? - Phosphodiesterase List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine. - Treatment of insect bites and treatment of hives in horses What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names? - - amine List two potential uses for Dopram. - Treatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of respiration in newborn animals
What structures constitute the urinary system? - Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients. - Rompun and ketaset Renal damage bay be categorized as , , or - Prerenal, renal, postrenal. Explain how diuretics work - Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - Potassium (K) ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to - Angiotensin II Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of uroliths. - Struvite The renal cortex produces ; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative in its production. - Erythopoietin; decrease Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretics? - Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium Where is ADH secreted? - posterior pituitary gland The ureters - Originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder Persistently high blood pressure is known as - Hypertension Diuretics are used to remove fluid. - Extracellular Antidiuretic hormone is normally secreted by the pituitary gland - Postererior What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - Potassium Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of - uroliths is a medical term for bloody urine - hematuria What part of the kidney is responsible for the reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances? - Tubules
is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, the slower influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions - Depolarization ACE causes the conversion of to. - angiotensin I to angiotensin II List five factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias - Conditions that cause hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, increased levels of sensitivity to catecholamines, certain drugs such as digitalis, barbiturates, others, and cardiac trauma or disease. List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give an example of each. - Class IA- quinidine Class IB- lidocaine Class IC- flecainide Class II- propranolol Class III- bretylium Class IV- diltiazem List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as an arteriolar dilator, venodilator, or mixed. - Hydralazine- arteriolar, nitroglycerin-venodilator, prozosin- combined, enalapril- combined Why is Lasix sometimes called a loop diuretic? - it inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loops of Henle The use of many diuretics can lead to a dangerous loss of which electrolyte - Potassium List five ancillary methods of treatment for cardiovascular disease. - Bronchodilation, oxygen therapy, sedation, asprin, centesis The amount of blood that the heart is capable of pumping her minute is called - Cardiac output results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. - Congestive Heart Failure Nitroglycerin is supplied as an ointment. List the precautions that should be taken when applying. - Wear gloves, rotate application sites, do not pet the animal at the application site, measure dosage in inches, contact vet if rash appears on application site What diuretic is used most commonly in the treatment of heart failure? - Lasix (furosemide) What is hypokalemia? - abnormally low potassium levels in the blood
What are the primary goals of the dietary management of heart disease? - Sodium restriction and maintenance of good body weight and condition. List three effects of administration of catecholamines. - increased force of contraction, inscrease in blood preasure, elvated glucose levels The heart is a chambered pump that is responsible for moving blood through the vascular system - Four is a faster-than-normal heart rate - tachycardia When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardia muscles or abnormalities of the conduction system, may occur - Arrhythmia List the ways by which the cardiovascular system may increase its output during times of need, such as during athletic performance or to compensate for cardiac disease. - Increasing stroke volume, increasing efficiency of the heart muscle, physiologic heart enlargement CHS is associated with all of the following except: a. Exercise intolerance b. pulmonary edema c.ascites d. diaphragmatic hernia. - Diaphragmatic hernia Digitalis is a (an). It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant Digitalis purpurea. - Cardiac glycoside Quinidine is an alkaloid that is obtained from cinchona plants or is prepared from quinine. It is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation. Quinidine doses must be in patients who are being treated concurrently with digoxin. - decreased Gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin. T/F - False Concurrent use of NSAIDS may the effectiveness of captopril. - Decrease Furosemide may cause in patients - hypokalemia List three functions of the GI tract - Entry of food and fluid into body, absorption of nutrients and excretion of waste products List three examples of monogastric animals - Dogs, cats, primates
what is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation? - Peristalsis-Wave on contraction that moves contents along Segmentation- intestinal contractions that mix contents Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility T/F - False About what percent of the stomach's contents do emetics usually remove? - 80% How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers? - By forming a paste-like barrier over the surface of gastric ulcers bismuth subsalicylate compounds should be used with caution in what species? - Felines List basic functions of the GI system. - Intake food and fluid into the body, absorption of nutrients and fluids, excretion of waste products. What species has no gallbladder? - Equines Ruminants remasticate food to facilitate the digestion process. T/F - True the crop in birds is used for - food storage List the parts of the small intestine - jejunum, ileum, duodenum Apomorphine is - an emetic Cimetidine is - H2 receptor antagonist are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation - Laxatives. Mg sulfate is found in - Epsom salts Viokase-V powder is - - a digestive enzyme and approved for use in dogs and cats Describe the relationship between hormonal releasing factors, trophic hormones, and the hormones produced by specific tissues or glands. - Releasing factors (RF's) are messengers made by the hypothalamus in response to its detection of hormone levels in the blood. RFs send messages to the pituitary to stimulate this gland to manufacture trophic hormones. Trophic hormones, in turn, stimulate a specific tissue or gland. List the major endocrine glands - The major endocrine glands are the pituitary, the thyroid, the ovaries, the testicles, the adrenals, and the pancreas.
What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in vet met? - to correct a deficiency and to obtain a desired effect Endogenous hormones are those that are produced , whereas exogenous hormones come from sources. - in the body, external Where is the pituitary gland located and what is its function? - The base of the brain ventral to the hypothalamus. Function is to control the activity in other endocrine glands. Describe the difference between positive and negative feedback control mechanism in the endocrine system. - Negative feedback= hypothalamus senses high level of a certain hormone and reduces the amount of releasing facto (RF)for this hormone. Positive feedback is when it senses low level and release more RF to cause increase in trophic hormone. The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through the mechanism - neurohormonal reflex GnRH is classified as a - gonadotropin Hormonal products with "gest" in their name are classified as - Progestins List three potential uses of the prostaglandins in vet med - Estrus synchronization, induction of abortion, induction of estrus Human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to women and individuals with - Pregnant; Asthma Before oxytocin can exert its effects on the uterus, the uterus must first be primed by and - Estrogen and progesterone What precautions should be taken before oxytocin is administered - Reproductive tract should be examined for blockage or torsion and should be verified that cervix is dilated What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? - Triiodothyronine(T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4) List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism. - Soloxine and synthroid List the three major classes of insulin. - Short acting, intermediate acting, long acting. Which form of insulin is used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis? - Regular Which form(s) of insulin must be resuspended before administration? - NPH/PZI/Lente
Atropine is contraindicated in and - glaucoma, keratoconjunctivitis sicca Mydriatic agents are used to the pupils - Dilate Miotic agents produce constriction. - pupillary Why are opthalmic stains used? - Ophthalmic stains are used as diagnostic aids for detecting disease in both the anterior and posterior segments and in the nasolacrimal system. stain is the most commonly used dye for the detection of corneal epithelial defects - fluorescein Patients with ear mites, whose ears left untreated, often experience hematomas caused by excessive shaking of the head. - aural What type of administration is the most common method of treating disorders of the eye? - topical ophthalmics (ointments, drops) Why do most topical ophthalmic medications require several applications per day? - The eye secretes tears, the medication becomes diluted and reapplication becomes necessary What is Opthaine used for? - to provide local anesthesia to the eye The appearance of fluorescein stain at the nostril opening is an abnormal finding when a fluorescein stain test is performed. T/F? - False The nictitating membrane is also know as - 3rd eyelid agents dilate the pupil - Mydriatic Atropine Opthalmic agents are used to produce - mydriasis epinephrine is contraindicated in - angle glaucoma - Closed Mannitol is a loop diuretic T/F - False Fluorescein stain is used commonly to diagnose - corneal ulcers have very strong palpebral muscles and it may be necessary to have another person assist when one is applying ophthalmic drugs. - Equines. It is acceptable to use corticosteroid-type ointments in patients with corneal ulcers T/F - False
has been developed for the treatment of otodectes spp. - Acarexx How many milligrams of tropicamide are in a 0.5% solution? - 0.05 mg The skin consists of layers and is part of the system. - Three, integumentary Name seven functions of the skin. - Protection, temperature regulation, storage, immunoregulation, secretion, vitamin D production, and sensory perception Shampoos are most effective if left on the skin about to minutes before rinsing - 5 to 10 Keratolytics and keratoplastics are known as agents. - Antiseborrheic Name the four stages of wound healing - 1. Inflammation
- Debridement
- Repair
- Maturation What does an astringent do to the skin? - drying and cleansing properties Tissue irritation may be caused by counterirritants. T/F - True Patients are commonly presented for skin problems when in reality they may have a illness. - Systemic Why are behavioral-type drugs used in treating skin illness? - To keep the animal from excessive self-licking and /or mutilation. All patients presented for dermatologic problems have an underlying systemic illness. T/F - False The is the largest organ in the body. - Skin Humans have multiple hairs per follicle, but animals have one hair per follicle. T/F - False Shampoos should be left on the animal's skin for 5 to 10 minutes before rinsing. T/F - True The debridement stage of wound healing usually begins to occur about hour(s) after injury. - 6
Clindamycin is classified as a(n) - Tetracycline Veterinarians commonly dispense aminoglycosides to patients with renal insufficiency T/F - False. they can cause nephrotoxicity. Enrofloxacin as a - Fluoroquinolone Amphotericin B may be used in the treatment of mycotic fungal infections T/F - True Name the 5 types of symbiotic relationships - Predator-prey, commensalism, mutualism, phoresis, parasitism What is parasitosis - occurs when an animal is infected with parasites, and clinical signs can be observed What is parasitiasis - occurs when an animal is infected with parasites, but no clinical signs can be observed what are ectoparasites? - parasites that live on the external surface of a host What are endoparasites? - Parasites that live within the body of their host. An animal with endoparasites is said to be and and animal with ectoparasites is said to be - infected, infested what is an anthemintic? - administered to rid the body of endoparasites. dips should never be used on cats. - Organophosphate IGR is an acronym for - Insect growth regulator Praziquantel is a drug that is used to rid the body of - tapeworms an example of is the bacterium Moraxella bovis, the etiologic agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, or pinkeye, that is mechanically carried from the eyes of one cow to those of another on the sticky footpads of the face fly Musca autumnalis - phoresis Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in the class. - avermectin All of the following are monthly heartworm preventives except a milbemycin axime b. selamectin c. Heartgard plus d. diethylcarbamazine - Diethylcarbamazine
is the most commonly used formamidine in vet met - Amitraz is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines.
- Emodepside/praziquantel (profender) An arsenic compound administered by deep IM injection in the lumbar region is. - Melasomine dihydrochloride. albendazole is the active ingredient found in - Valbazen An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinesterase T/F - True Advantage has greater efficacy against and frontline has a greater efficacy against
- fleas, ticks are parasitic worms, including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lungworms, kidney worms, heartworms, and others. - Nematodes Pain sensation arises in free nerve endings called - Nociceptors List some signs associated with pain in animals - Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, vocalization, guarding the painful site, restlessness, salivation, failure to groom, unresponsiveness, abnormal gait, abnormal stance, and rolling NSAIDs that preferentially inhibit are thought to produce fewer gastrointestinal side effects - COX- 2 What is the most common side effect of the NSAIDs? - GI ulceration and/or bleeding Why are cats so susceptible to aspirin overdose? - Cats metabolize aspirin very slowly Phenylbutazone should be administered parenterally by the subcutaneous route only. T?F - False What Class II opioid is administered via transdermal pouch? - Fentanyl Corticosteroid therapy involves the treatment of the signs of disease and often cures the disease as well. T/F - False. it only treats symptoms. What function do mineralocorticoids serve in the body? - Regulate electrolyte and water balance in the body. List some principles that should be followed concerning corticosteroid therapy. - alternate-day dosing may help prevent iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism; administration
