Veterinary Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

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PENN FOSTER VETERINARY

PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE

EXAM QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS LATEST VERSIONS

2025 GRADED A+

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1. What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns? Ans: Peristalsis (wave of contraction), segmentation (mixing action)

2. Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as? Ans: Withholding food for 12 to 24 hours

3. List two species that do not vomit? Ans: Rats and horses

4. What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? Ans: Retaining water osmotically in the gut. Cause softening of the stool.

5. What is the active ingredient of Metamucil? Ans: psyllium

6. Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? Ans: My mimicking the effect pf acetylcholine

7. A synthetic antibiotic/anti-inflammatory agent used to treat giardiasis and anaerobic bacterial infection in animals is called _____? Ans: Metronidazole

8. List four products that used as a dentifrice/oral cleansing agents? Ans: C.E.T, nolvadent, oral Dent, Oxydent

Ans: Expresses the relationship between a drug's therapeutic and harmful effects

17. Define Withdrawal Time? Ans: Amount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and elimination of that drug from patients’ tissues or products.
18. Define Veterinarian-client-patient relationship? Ans: Relationship that must exist between the vet, the patient, and the owner before prescription drugs can be dispensed.
19. List 4 sources of drugs used in Vet Med? Ans:
    • Animal product
    • Plant material
    • Minerals
    • Synthetic products
20. What are 4 components of a drug regimen? Ans:
    • Dose
    • Route
    • Frequency
    • Duration of administration.
21. Discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship can be shown to exist? Ans:
22. Vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgments in relation to health of the animal.

2. Vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care.
3. Vet must be available for follow-up care of the animal
4. Discuss the responsibilities of a vet tech in the administration of drug orders? Ans: To carry out the vet's orders correctly. should read the drug label three times to ensure proper drug is being administered and should take care to administer correct dose by correct route. Should be aware of the expected affects and potential adverse side effects and be able to monitor the patient.
5. Describe the sequence of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion? Ans: Drug is absorbed (or placed directly) into the bloodstream, the drug may bind with plasma in the blood or may exist in free state, circulating blood distributes drug to capillary level where it leaves circulation and enters interstitial fluid. it bathes the cell and allows drug to bind to cell surface receptors or enter the cell. It then exits the cell and moves back into interstitial fluid, reenters circulation, and is transported to liver for metabolism. The metabolite is then transported to kidneys for excretion.
6. List 11 possible routes for administering a drug to a patient? Ans: Oral, subcutaneous, intramuscular, intravenous, intraperitoneal, intraarterial, intracardiac, intramedullary, inhalation, topical, intradermal
7. List some of the factors that influence drug absorption? Ans: Method of absorption, pH of the drug and ionization status, absorptive surface area, blood supply to area, solubility of drug, dosage form, status of GI tract, and interactions with other drugs.
8. Most biotransformation occurs in the_____? Ans: Liver

35. What is the purpose of FARAD? Ans: Provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals
36. Extra label veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of congress? Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
37. Define Compounding? Ans: Diluting or combing in existing drugs
38. What are potential dangers of residues in animal products? Ans: May cause allergic reaction or neoplasia in people, may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria
39. List 3 classes of drug interactions? Pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, and pharmaceutic
40. Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both metabolized by the_____? Ans: Liver
41. Define Ethical Product? Ans: one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement.
42. Once a drug has been biotransformed, it is called a_____? Ans: Metabolite

43. A reason to use a drug is a(n)_____? Ans: Indication
44. Diagnostic method of choosing a drug is based on all of the following except a. Practical experience b. Assessment of the patient c. Obtaining a history d. Performing lab tests? A. Practical experience.
45. Define extra label? Ans: Using a drug in a way not specified by the label
46. Complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is administered is called____? Ans: Pharmacokinetics
47. Parenteral drugs are administered________? Ans: By injections.
48. The body's ability to change a drug chemically from the form in which it was administered into a form that can be eliminated from the body is called_____? Ans: Metabolism (biotransformation)
49. Degree to which a drug produces its desired response in a patient is called________? Ans: Efficacy

57. Name the 6 rights of drug administration? Ans: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time and frequency, right documentation
58. Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are? Ans: Vomiting
59. Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most _____ and effective administration? Ans: Rapid
60. An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every ____ hours? Ans: 72
61. A Simplex (gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ____animals? Ans: large
62. Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log? Ans: Date, owner's name, patient's name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name(s) of personnel administering the drug to the patient
63. Why should drugs be given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration? Ans: The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective
64. List 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use? Ans: Luer-lock, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter tip

65. A tuberculin syringe holds up to _____mL of medication? Ans: 1 mL
66. A(n) ______ is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation? Ans: Counter irritant
67. What type of syringe is divided into units rather than mLs? Ans: Insulin syringe
68. A(n) _____ will usually separate after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose? Ans: Suspension
69. Which syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe? Ans: Luer-Lok tip
70. All of the following are sites for IV administration in small animals except a. jugular vein b. carotid artery c. lateral saphenous vein d. Cephalic vein? Ans: b. carotid artery
71. If an IV catheter is not used continuously it should be flushed with heparinized saline every ___ to ___ hours?

79. Most CNS drugs act by _____ or _____ the effects of neurotransmitters.? Ans: - Interrupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses
80. What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors? Ans: Epinephrine and norepinephrine
81. List the four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS? Ans: Mimicking neurotransmitters, interfering with neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
82. List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents? Ans: Control vomiting, treat urinary retention, stimulate GI activity, treat glaucoma and to aid in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
83. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class? Ans: Cholinergic blocking agents
84. What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock? Ans: adrenergic (sympathomimetic)
85. Propranolol is an example of which category of drug? Ans: Beta Blocker
86. What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects?

Ans: Bradycardia and hypotension can be antagonized by using atropine, respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression can be antagonized by using yohimbine.

87. Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog? Ans: Thiobarbiturates are fat soluble which means fat acts like a sponge to take barbiturate out of circulation and away from CNS. Thin animals will not absorb as much in to fat tissues and more will remain in bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS.
88. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? Ans: Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, loss of blink reflex.
89. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose? Ans: Respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures
90. List two narcotic antagonists? Ans: Naloxone and nalorphine
91. Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? Ans: Because it tends to precipitate out of solution when stored
92. you are assisting the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route?? Ans: Doxapram (Dopram) may be administered under tongue or into umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection.

Ans: Anipryl

101. The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The ____ system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures.? Ans: endocrine
102. The ___nervous system is under voluntary control? Ans: Somatic
103. the _____ is the fundamental unit of the nervous system? Ans: Neuron
104. Axons carry electric-like messages ____ (from) the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages _____ (from) the nerve cell.? Ans: Away? Toward
105. Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs, and that is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis. T/F?? Ans: False
106. the ANS is that portion of the nervous system that controls _____ body activities.? Ans: Unconscious
107. the neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is_____? Ans: acetylcholine

108. Epinephrine is responsible for all of the following except____ a. can cause an increase in metabolic rate b. can cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow d. can constrict blood vessels in the skin.? Ans: c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow
109. Xylazine is antagonized by _____? Ans: Yohimbine
110. All of the following are benzodiazepines except _____ a. yohimbine b. diazepam c. alprazolam d. lorazepam? Ans: a. yohimbine
111. What structures would a molecule of oxygen pass over or through as it travels from the environment to the alveoli? Ans: Nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
112. what are the 4 primary functions of the respiratory system? Ans: oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange, regulation of acid base balance, body temperature regulation and voice production.
113. describe the functions of the three basic defense mechanisms of the respiratory system? Ans: Structures in the nasal passages filter, warm, and humidify inspired air. The cough, sneeze and reverse sneeze attempt to remove foreign material that has entered the respiratory system

122. The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellular enzyme? Ans: Phosphodiesterase
123. List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine? Ans: Treatment of insect bites and treatment of hives in horses.
124. What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names? Ans: - amine
125. List two potential uses for Dopram? Ans: Treatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of respiration in newborn animals.
126. What structures constitute the urinary system? Ans: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
127. Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients? Ans: Rompun and ketaset
128. Renal damage bay be categorized as _____, _____, or _____? Ans: Prerenal, renal, postrenal.
129. Explain how diuretics work? Ans: Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension

130. What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? Ans: Potassium (K)
131. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to _____? Ans: Angiotensin II
132. Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ___ uroliths? Ans: Struvite
133. The renal cortex produces ______; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative _____ in its production? Ans: Erythropoietin; decrease
134. Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretics? Ans: Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium
135. Where is ADH secreted? Ans: Ans: posterior pituitary gland
136. The ureters ___? Ans: Originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder
137. Persistently high blood pressure is known as? Ans: Hypertension