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Personal Trainer Exam Latest with
Answers
What are the three components of feedback? - ✔ Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? - ✔ Associative Stage of Learning During which stage of learning are clients performing motor skills effectively and naturally and the personal trainer doing less teaching and more monitoring? - ✔ autonomous Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? - ✔ health belief model What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information? - ✔ Past performance experience What kind of tasks will a person with low self-efficacy tend to choose? - ✔ non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish, so they won't fail. A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's stage of change? - ✔ Preparation What marks the preparation stage? - ✔ some physical activity as the client is preparing themselves for the program.. this may include a couple visits to the gym, a walk, but is inconsistent. _______________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. -
✔ Decisional balance Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased? - ✔ extinction What is negative reinforcement? - ✔ What is positive reinforcement? - ✔ the addition of a reinforcing stimulus following a behavior that makes it more likely that the behavior will occur again in the future punishment - ✔ A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using? - ✔ stimulus control What is observational learning? - ✔ What is shaping? - ✔ What is operant conditioning? - ✔ What are some examples of stimulus control? - ✔ Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule. When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? - ✔ When goals are met or programs are modified
✔ To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
- The goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1, and to improve the client's ability to utilize fat as a fuel source. Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1 and VT2? - ✔ <10% - Zone two Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training in zone 1? - ✔ 70 - 80% - at or below VT Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training at or above VT2? - ✔ 10 - 20% - Zone 3 Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model generally have goals related to _______________. - ✔ Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele? - ✔ To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes What is the first objective when meeting a prospective client? - ✔ first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual Whats a secondary objective when meeting a prospective client? - ✔ gathering info on a client's goal and objectives What are the purposes of the pre-participation screening? - ✔ - Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
- Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control
- Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program
- Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs If a person says "yes" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q, what should be a trainers plan of action? - ✔ If a person answers "yes" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q, he or she should talk with a doctor by phone or in person BEFORE starting to become much more physically active or BEFORE having a fitness appraisal. He or she should also tell the doctor about the PAR-Q and which questions were answered YES. What level of blood pressure is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? - ✔ Systolic BP >140 mmHg AND/OR Diastolic BP >90 mmHg After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin? - ✔ Two days Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates? - ✔ Beta blockers What must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening? - ✔ Health-risk appraisal _______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. - ✔ diastolic blood pressure A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client? - ✔ Prehypertension- Individuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120-139 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure is 80-89 mmHg. Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is MOST accurate? -
✔ Rectus abdominis and hip extensors During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight? - ✔ Rectus femoris In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres major. What might you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion? - ✔ Client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies between the limbs, what are the two possible reasons? - ✔ potential tightness in thelateral rotators of the arm (i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation. A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client's performance? - ✔ A male client who is able to hold the stork-stand position for 41 to 50 seconds is categorized as "good." Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests? - ✔ Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus Apley's scratch test involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints in all three planes. This represents a challenge in evaluating shoulder movement and identifying movement limitations. To identify the source of the limitation, trainers can first perform various isolated movements in single planes to locate potentially problematic movements. Consequently, the scratch test is completed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and the internal- external rotation test of the humerus. During the administration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional. These symptoms include: - ✔ Onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure (SBP) despite an increase in exercise intensity
Excessive rise in blood pressure (BP): SBP >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115 mmHg Excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin Increased nervous system symptoms (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope) Leg cramping or claudication Subject requests to stop Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue Failure of testing equipment _______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height. - ✔ BMI What does a push-up test measure? - ✔ upper-body endurance, specifically of the pectoralis muscles, triceps, and anterior deltoids. What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? - ✔. What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a male client's health is considered at risk? - ✔. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of_______________ during maximal exercise. - ✔ exhaled air
✔ Stabililty Does the ankle favor stability or mobility? - ✔ Mobility What muscle exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position? - ✔ rectus abdominis When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by targeting which region of the body? - ✔ Lumbar spine After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________. - ✔ Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60 seconds? - ✔ static stretching A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client? - ✔ Dynamic and Ballistic. --key word: functional flexibility Is COG (center of gravity) typically higher or lower in men? - ✔ higher; really COG depends on the individual what technique will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise? - ✔ lowering the center of mass What movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility? - ✔ rotational movements What kind of movement is a woodchop? - ✔ rotational
What type of movement is a unilateral row? - ✔ pulling what type of movement is the lunge? - ✔ single leg movement what type of movement is the hip hinge? - ✔ bend-and-lift movement What is muscular power? - ✔ the product of muscular strength and movement speed. List the skill-related parameters: - ✔ power, speed, balance, agility, coordination, and reactivity. List the health-related parameters: - ✔ maximal muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, and aerobic capacity Training frequency is inversely related to both training _______________ and training_______________. - ✔ volume; intensity More vigorous exercise sessions produce more muscle microtrauma, require more time for tissue remodeling, and must be performed less frequently for optimum results. A client's resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal? - ✔ muscular strength What parameters will a program meet if it is classified for "muscular strength?" - ✔ addressed with any training regimen involving the performance of two to six sets of six or fewer repetitions. What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol? - ✔ Adding repetitions to the set; The first progression is adding repetitions, and the second progression is adding resistance in 5% increments.
of a number of speech-provoking stimuli (normal conversation, a structured interview, reciting a standard paragraph) by stating that they can speak comfortably. Above VT1, but below a second metabolic marker called the second ventilatory threshold (VT2), they will be able to speak, but not comfortably. In which zone of the three-zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold? - ✔ zone 3 -- heart rates at or above VT The introduction of training with heart rates at and above VT1 takes place in which phase? - ✔ aerobic efficiency Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate in the early stages of an exercise program? - ✔ duration; building the exercise session by 10%, or five to 10 minutes every week or two over the first four to six weeks. Thereafter, and once adherence is developed, trainers can implement progressions by increasing exercise frequency and then exercise intensity. During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be working at an RPE of 3 to 4? - ✔ Phase 1 - below talk test threshold and/or RPE of 3-4 (moderate to somewhat hard) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a trainer administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2? - ✔ Phase 3; the focus is on designing programs to help clients who have endurance performance goals and/or are performing seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week. This is the most appropriate time to administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2. During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should low zone 2 intervals be introduced into a client's program? - ✔ Phase 2 Which form of mind-body exercise is BEST described as a form of moving meditation? - ✔ Tai chi, the martial art derivative of qigong, is best described as a moving meditation. Which type of yoga program is BEST suited for individuals who are new to yoga? -
✔ restorative yoga Which type of yoga is also known as "power yoga"? - ✔ Ashtanga yoga Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with "serpent power," or the coiled-up energy contained in the body? - ✔ Kundalini Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today? - ✔ Yang style An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you recommend? - ✔ sun style Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a machine called a reformer? - ✔ pilates Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity? - ✔ nia What is a means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise program? - ✔ baseline and serial resting blood pressure measurement (4-6 weeks into the program) _______________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation. - ✔ Pranayama What are some manifestations of atherosclerosis? - ✔ angina, heart attack, stroke, and intermittent claudication
Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders? - ✔ osteoporosis For clients with which of the following diseases or disorders is it MOST important to develop a "regular" pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise? - ✔ Chronic fatigue syndrome How often should low-back exercises be performed in order to yield the maximum benefit? - ✔ seven days a week When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most important to focus on muscular strength, as opposed to muscular endurance. - ✔ False Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a MINIMUM of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week. - ✔ 150 The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the _______________. - ✔ menisci What type of injury can be classified as longitudinal, oblique, transverse, or compression? - ✔ stress fractures What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs? - ✔ inflammation phase (lasts for up to six days) What are contraindications to stretching? - ✔ A fracture site that is healing Acute soft-tissue injury Post-surgical conditions Joint hypermobility
An area of infection A hematoma or other indication of trauma Pain in the affected area Restrictions from the client's doctor Prolonged immobilization of muscles and connective tissue Joint swelling (effusion) from trauma or disease Presence of osteoporosis or rheumatoid arthritis A history or prolonged corticosteroid use Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as __________. - ✔ tennis elbow A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during exercise. What injury is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? - ✔ Carpal tunnel syndrome what are the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome? - ✔ Night or early-morning pain or burning Loss of grip strength and dropping of objects Numbness or tingling in the palm, thumb, index, and middle fingers A client comes to you with recommendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses or her training should be strengthening which of the following muscle groups? - ✔ gluteals Which of the following injuries is primarily caused by training errors among athletes? - ✔ ilioitibial band syndrome
✔ False : When training clients in their homes, personal trainers can have clients provide the music for each session. In effect, the clients are then using these recording for their own private, non-commercial enjoyment during exercise. When evaluating the risk of injury associated with a particular activity, a personal trainer finds that the frequency of occurrence is low or seldom, and the severity of injury is categorized as high or vital. What is the BEST course of action? - ✔ transfer; The best course of action in this situation is to transfer the risk, which involves moving the risk to others through waivers, insurance policies, etc. A trainer receives a bonus for meeting performance objectives on a quarterly basis. Is this personal trainer more likely a direct employee or an independent contractor? - ✔ direct employee Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of working as a direct employee? a. The personal trainer has to pay quarterly taxes. b. The personal trainer is responsible for all of his or her own marketing costs. c. The personal trainer likely has to work an established minimum number of hours. d. The personal trainer likely does not have any input regarding the operations of the facility. - ✔ c. The personal trainer likely has to work an established minimum number of hours. Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor? a. The facility provides opportunities for promotion. b. The facility covers the cost of marketing for new facility members. c. The facility provides health insurance and other benefits. d. The facility allows the trainer to establish all training fees. - ✔ d. The facility allows the trainer to establish all training fees. In which section of a business plan should a personal trainer identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the area? -
✔ b. Business description The business description should accomplish the following: Identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the area Describe the fitness industry specific to the local market Provide details such as the number and location of competitors, how many employees they have, and the number of clients to whom they provide services List the members of the management team, highlighting their knowledge, skills, and experience Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of the marketing plan portion of the business plan? a. Demand for personal-training services b. Specific type or brand of training being offered c. Plan for communicating the benefits of personal training d. The barriers of entry into the business - ✔ The barriers of entry into the business; The discussion of the barriers to entry, including the costs associated with starting a business, such as rental fees, equipment, employees, and marketing, are included in the risk analysis section of the business plan. What is the BEST response if a prospective client is unable to adjust his or her schedule to fit into the time that the personal trainer has available? - ✔ d. The trainer should refer this client to another trainer working in the facility. Two personal trainers are working in the same market, one as a direct employee and one as an independent contractor. Which one is more likely to be earning a higher per- session training fee? - ✔ b. Independent contractor
