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PHARM PHARMACOLOGICAL AND PARENTERAL THERAPIES LATEST
FINAL EXAM UPDATED FOR 2025- 2026 TOP SCORE COMPREHENSIVE
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A client with a digoxin level of 2.4 ng/ml has a heart rate of 39. The health care provider prescribes atropine sulfate. Which of the following best describes the intended action of atropine for this client? a. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses. b. To reduce peristalsis and urinary bladder tone. c. To stimulate the SA node and sympathetic fibers to increase the rate. d. To dry oral and tracheobronchial secretions. a. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses. Atropine accelerates the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses. It is given IVP at doses of 0.5mg to 1.0mg per dose; every 3 to 5 minutes; up to 2.0mg. Doses less than 0.5mg may cause a paradoxical slowing of the heart rate. When Atropine is given to a client with history of an MI it should be used with great caution; increasing the heart rate also increases myocardial oxygen consumption! A client is prescribed digoxin 1mg by mouth QID. The client states that the objects in his room have a yellowish tinge and he is nauseated. Select the most appropriate nursing action at this time. a. Hold the drug and call the health care provider. b. Hold the medication and count the apical pulse before the next dose is to be given. c. Count the apical pulse; if it is regular and above 60, administer the drug as ordered. d. Administer the medication and observe the client for further nausea. a. Hold the drug and call the health care provider. This client is showing signs of digitalis toxicity. The most appropriate action is to hold the drug and call the health care provider. Severe arrhythmia may develop if action is not taken.
A client diagnosed with preterm labor has been prescribed nifedipine. The client asks the nurse why this particular medication has been prescribed. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct? a. To lower your blood pressure b. To relax your muscles of your uterus c. To decrease the intensity of your pain d. To promote development of your baby's lungs b. To relax your muscles of your uterus The use of nifedipine for the treatment of preterm labor is an unlabeled use of the drug. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is more commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart disease. Smooth muscle tissue, like the uterus, needs calcium to contract. Nifedipine blocks the passage of calcium into certain tissues, relaxing the uterine muscles and smooth muscles of blood vessels throughout the body. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). An intravenous infusion of regular insulin has been started. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for this client? a. Add the prescribed dose of NPH insulin to the IV infusion b. Obtain an arterial blood gas every 2 hours c. Monitor blood glucose levels every 4 hours d. Ensure glucagon is readily available d. Ensure glucagon is readily available Glucagon and D50 are used for rapid treatment of hypoglycemia which can occur when insulin is administered intravenously A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of lithium. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?
A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following outcomes best demonstrates that TPN therapy is effective? a. The client reports less frequent bowel movements. b. The client's urinary output increases by 800 mL per day. c. The client maintains an albumin level of 5.0 g/100mL. d. The client gains one kilogram per day. c. The client maintains an albumin level of 5.0 g/100mL. When clients are on TPN therapy, laboratory values such as electrolytes, CBC, BUN, and plasma glucose should be monitored closely. All laboratory values should be within normal range. Normal range for albumin is 4.5-5.0 g/100ml. A client with Type 1 diabetes has the following values from the morning laboratory testing: fasting plasma glucose = 115 mg/dL and HgA1C = 7.5%. How would a nurse interpret these values with regard to the client's glucose control? a. Short term values normal, long-term values elevated b. Short term values elevated, long-term values normal c. Short term values elevated, long term values elevated d. Short term values normal, long term values normal a. Short term values normal, long-term values elevated Fasting plasma glucose is normal. Normal fasting plasma glucose range for the diabetic client is 90 - 130 mg/dl. HgA1C level is elevated. HgA1C normal level range is less than 7% with the optimal range being 4-6% in the diabetic. HgA1C level indicates the client's glucose range over the last 120 day period and is considered to be the best indicator of long term glycemic control.
A nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory results while preparing to administer a client their dose of digoxin. Which result would the nurse need to report to the primary care provider? Select one: a. Digoxin level of 0.5 ng/ml b. Sodium level of 133 mEq/l c. Calcium level of 11mg/dl d. Potassium level of 3.4 mEq/l d. Potassium level of 3.4 mEq/l Serum potassium is important to monitor for the client on digoxin. Hypokalemia can lead to digoxin toxicity while hyperkalemia can lead to a low therapeutic level. The normal range for potassium is 3.5-5.0 mEq/l. A nurse is monitoring client compliance with the diabetes mellitus treatment regimen. Which of the following values best indicates compliance with the regimen? a. Fasting blood glucose level of 127 mg/dL b. Pre-meal glucose of 140 mg/dL c. Blood glucose level of 125 mg/dL d. Hemoglobin A1c of 5% Hemoglobin A1c of 5% A nurse is caring for a client prescribed omeprazole. What information should the nurse provide to the client regarding administration of this medication? Select one: a. Take the medication in the morning before breakfast. b. You may crush the medication for easier swallowing. c. Take the medication after a meal twice daily. d. Take the medication at bedtime. a. Take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Clients should take omeprazole once a day prior to eating in the morning.
a. Daily monitoring of blood glucose is recommended b. Methotrexate will decrease the risk of developing cancer. c. Methotrexate can be administered during pregnancy d. The complete blood count (CBC) will be monitored. d. The complete blood count (CBC) will be monitored. Bone marrow suppression is a common side effect when using methotrexate for long term therapy in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The client will have their complete blood count monitored periodically for evidence of anemia, neutropenia or thrombocytopenia. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse the need for further teaching? Select one: a. "If I see halos around lights there is no need to notify my provider." b. "I will check my pulse every day before taking my medication." c. "I should eat bananas and drink orange juice when I am on this medication." d. "I will take my medication at the same time each day." a. "If I see halos around lights there is no need to notify my provider." CNS effects such as blurred vision, diplopia and white halos around objects are a sign of drug toxicity and client should notify provider immediately. A client experiences postural hypotension during initial drug therapy with diltiazem. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to recommend to this client? Select one: a. Eat small, frequent meals during the day. b. Drink additional oral fluids each day. c. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. d. Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
d. Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. This will allow them to adjust to the upright position; slowly rising allows the heart to adjust the cardiac output to pump harder to maintain adequate BP to offset any orthostatic hypotension from occurring. A client ingested a full bottle of imipramine hydrochloride. Which of the following toxic effects is most important for the nurse monitor? Select one: a. Arrhythmias b. Blurred vision c. Hypertension d. Photophobia a. Arrhythmias With a Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose, there is a high risk for serious cardiac problems, including arrhythmias, tachycardia and myocardial infarction. The nurse is providing client education regarding the combined use of herbal supplements with prescribed medications. Which of the following statements indicates the client correctly understands the interaction of ginkgo biloba and warfarin? Select one: a. "I should take the warfarin in the morning and the ginkgo at bedtime so that they do not interact." b. "Ginkgo increases the effects of warfarin so I will stop taking the ginkgo." c. "Ginkgo and warfarin should be taken at the same time during the day." d. "The ginkgo and warfarin work together to help my memory." b. "Ginkgo increases the effects of warfarin so I will stop taking the ginkgo." When ginkgo biloba is taken with antiplatelet or anticoagulant medications, the effect of the antiplatelet/anticoagulant drug may be increased, resulting in uncontrolled bleeding.
Flushing of the face and neck are symptoms of red man or red neck syndrome occurring with too rapid infusion of Vancomycin. Vancomycin can cause two types of hypersensitivity reactions, the red man syndrome and anaphylaxis. Red man syndrome has often been associated with rapid infusion of the first dose of the drug and was initially attributed to impurities found in vancomycin preparations. First action should be to stop the infusion. Contacting the health care provider is necessary after the infusion is stopped. The client should be monitored for serious reactions such as hypotension, dyspnea, anaphylaxis, renal failure or hearing loss. Other minor reactions are chills, dizziness, fever, pruritis, and tinnitus. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess before administering this medication to the client? Select one: a. Serum electrolytes. b. Breath sounds. c. Peripheral edema. d. Body temperature. a. Serum electrolytes. A side effect of lisinopril is hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to life threatening dysrhythmias. The nurse should monitor the client's serum K+ level closely and notify the provider of a critical level before administering an ACE inhibitor. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed gentamicin sulfate. Which of the following side effects would indicate an adverse reaction to this medication? Select one: a. Pruritis in the forearms and upper arms. b. Muscular cramping in the lower extremities. c. Fine tremors in the fingers and hands. d. Urinary output of 185 mL in an 8 hour shift. d. Urinary output of 185 mL in an 8 hour shift. Urinary Output of 185 mL in an 8 hour period could indicate nephrotoxicity which is an adverse side effect of an aminoglycosides. Normal urinary output should be at least 30 mL per hour to adequately remove waste products from the body. A client diagnosed with depression has been prescribed fluoxetine. Which of the following information should the nurse emphasize? Select one: a. Take the medication at bedtime b. Avoid foods high in tyramine
c. Take the medication in the morning d. Maintain an adequate fluid and sodium balance c. Take the medication in the morning Take the medication in the morning, as insomnia is a side effect of SSRIs. A client in the behavioral health unit began taking fluoxetine 20 mg per day three days ago for depression. Which of the following should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider? Select one: a. Agitation and fever b. Headache and nausea c. Sexual dysfunction d. Weight gain a. Agitation and fever Agitation and fever are symptoms of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that can develop in client's taking SSRIs such as fluoxetine. These symptoms develop within 2-72 hours after starting treatment and may also include mental confusion, anxiety, hallucinations, tremors, and hyperreflexia.. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who is taking atenolol. Which instructions should the nurse give to the client to prevent postural hypotension? Select one: a. Move slowly when changing from lying to standing b. Take the medication immediately after awakening c. Lie down if dizziness or lightheadedness occurs d. Take the medication with plenty of fluids a. Move slowly when changing from lying to standing Taking Tenormin at bedtime will help with symptoms of postural hypotension, which is a common side effect of beta blockers. A nurse is to administer morphine sulfate 10 mg intramuscular (IM) to an adult client for postoperative pain. Which injection site is the most appropriate? Select one: a. Deltoid b. Epidural
A client admitted with an acute exacerbation of asthma has been prescribed methylprednisolone sodium succinate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately? Select one: a. Oral temperature of 100.5 F b. Mild wheezing c. Blood glucose 120 mg/dL d. Increased hunger a. Oral temperature of 100.5 F Infection is a potential adverse of glucocorticoids. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of infection such as fever and sore throat and report immediately if they occur. A client has been prescribed spironolactone for treatment of heart failure. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further teaching? Select one: a. "I will weigh myself daily and report any changes in weight." b. "I will limit the use of salt in my diet and use a salt substitute instead." c. "I will need to have routine labs drawn while taking this medication." d. "I should take my medication at the same time each day in the morning." b. "I will limit the use of salt in my diet and use a salt substitute instead." Correct: Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic and caution should be taken when using this medication with anything that may increase potassium levels. Most salt substitutes contain potassium and should be avoided. Clients should also never take an oral potassium substitute, and be cautioned about large dietary changes that increase potassium. ACE inhibitors should also be used with cautions when on a potassium sparing diuretic. A nurse is administering mannitol to the client with increased intracranial pressure. What supplies are necessary when administering this medication? Select one: a. Pressure cuff, 1000mL bag of normal saline b. Syringe, filter needle, IV filter tubing
c. Pill cup, glass of water, straw d. Alcohol wipe, syringe, 18 gauge needle b. Syringe, filter needle, IV filter tubing Correct: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, indicated for treatment of increased intracranial pressure, increased intraocular pressure and in certain cases of acute kidney injury. Mannitol is an injectable medication, given slow IV push or via continuous IV infusion. Mannitol may crystalize (form white or icy looking precipitate) in the vial if exposed to extreme temperatures, and this precipitate could be dangerous to the client. For this reason, all mannitol must be drawn up with a filter needle, and then the nurse should remove the filter needle and use the injection port to administer the medication. A client is a Jehovah's Witness and is scheduled for an elective hysterectomy secondary to prolonged and heavy menses. Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered prior to surgery for this client? Select one: a. Methylergonovine b. Retrovir c. Interferon d. Epoetin Alfa d. Epoetin Alfa Correct: Epoetin Alfa is a growth factor used to treat anemia related to renal disease, chemotherapy, HIV / AIDS treatment and for clients who are anemic undergoing elective surgery. Jehovah's Witness' clients generally do not accept blood transfusions, and this client has had prolonged and heavy menstrual bleeding and is likely anemic. In this case, Epoetin Alfa dosing 2-4 weeks prior to surgery (generally once per week for four weeks prior to surgery) would be indicated to raise the hemoglobin to a therapeutic level. A client has been prescribed bupropion to assist with smoking cessation therapy. Which of the following findings would a nurse report to the health care provider immediately? Select one: a. Nausea and Vomiting b. Dry mouth c. Seizures
