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Pharmacology Exam 1 - Multiple Choice
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
- The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as
A. pharmacotherapeutics
B. pharmacodynamics
C. pharmacokinetics
D. pharmacy
E. posology - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as
A. side effect
B. adverse effect
C. drug allergy
D. contraindication
E. antagonism - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as
A. toxic effect
B. antagonism
C. idiosyncrasy
D. side effect
E. drug allergy - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the
A. generic name
B. over-the-counter name
C. trade name
D. chemical name
E. none of these - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the
A. duration of action
B. onset of action
C. ceiling effect
D. maximal response
E. ceiling effect - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a
A. poison
B. OTC drug
C. prescription drug
D. controlled substance
E. nonproprietary drug - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect.
E. duration of action - CORRECT ANSWERS E
. The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is
A. inhalation
B. transdermal
C. intramuscular
D. sublingual
E. intravenous - CORRECT ANSWERS B
In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be
A. ionized
B. positively charged
C. water soluble
D. lipid soluble
E. negatively charged - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the
A. kidney
B. blood vessels
C. liver
D. heart
E. adipose tissue - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- Drug X has a half-life of 6 hours. How much drug is left in the body 18 hours after an IV injection of 1200 milligrams (mg)? - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. X
E. NR - CORRECT ANSWERS D= x
- When a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, the process is termed
A. first-pass metabolism
B. enzyme induction
C. enzyme inhibition
D. enterohepatic cycling
E. microsomal inhibition - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- The rate of drug absorption would be increased by which of the following?
A. drug ionization
B. water solubility
C. positively charged drug
D. negatively charged drug
E. lipid solubility - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- Which factor of individual variation is dependent upon the patient's attitude toward treatment?
A. weight
B. age
C. genetic variation
D) its hydrogen bonding.
E) its intrinsic activity. - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called
idiosyncrasy.
tachyphylaxis.
heterologous desensitization.
refractoriness.
receptor downregulation. - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called
A) tachyphylaxis.
B) inactivation.
C) desensitization.
D) downregulation.
E) refractoriness. - CORRECT ANSWERS D
A 16-year-old female with a history of goiter is admitted with fever, profuse sweating, tachyarrhythmia, hypertension, abdominal pain, and anxiety. Based on a working diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, she is started on a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist that has a very short half-life.
- Refer to the case above. Regarding the mechanism by which the drug ameliorates the toxic effects of excessive thyroxine levels, the drug acts as
A) a physiologic antagonist.
B) a competitive receptor antagonist.
C) a noncompetitive receptor antagonist.
D) a partial agonist.
E) an inverse agonist. - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors is
A. increased heart rate
B. bronchodilation
C. vasoconstriction
D. contraction of urinary bladder
E. increased force of myocardial contraction - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is
A. vasodilation
B. vasoconstriction
C. cardiac stimulation
D. cardiac depression
E. bronchodilation - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Epinephrine stimulates
A. alpha-1 receptors
B. alpha-2 receptors
C. beta-1 receptors
D. beta-2 receptors
B. phenylephrine
C. pseudoephedrine
D. epinephrine
E. propranolol - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?
A. decreasing heart rate
B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction
C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels
D. lowering of blood pressure
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following?
A. bronchodilation
B. vasoconstriction
C. relaxation of uterus
D. increased heart rate
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as
A. alpha-
B. nicotinic-neural (Nn)
C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm)
D. muscarinic
E. ganglionic - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs.
A. increased heart rate
B. increased gastrointestinal motility
C. decreased urination
D. pupillary dilation
E. bronchodilation - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n)
A. direct-acting cholinergic drug
B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
D. anticholinergic drug
E. ganglionic blocker - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include
A. slow pulse rate
B. increased urination
C. diarrhea
D. sweating
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except
A. bronchodilation
B. increased heart rate
- Which of the following is correct about the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor blocking drugs?
A. the mechanism of action is the same as represented by dantrolene
B. all of these drugs depolarize the muscle fiber before blockade occurs
C. calcium ions are released from the storage sites
D. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents
E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions?
A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly
B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver
C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors
D. longer duration of action than vecuronium
E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants
A. include dantrolene and cisatracurium
B. inhibit or reduce activity within the spinal cord (intraneuronal), interrupting the central stimulus to muscle contraction
C. can only be given parenterally
D. cause systemic release of histamine, leading to hypotension
E. counteract the effect of botulinumtoxin B - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Skeletal muscle relaxants may alter control of respiration because
A. the diaphragm is a skeletal muscle
B. succinylcholine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain
C. like dantrolene, all muscle relaxants inhibit the action of norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction
D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs
E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage in the muscle - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromuscular blockers.
A. neomycin
B. corticosteroids
C. general anesthetics like isoflurane
D. alcohol
E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed?
A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord
B. inhibiting nerve transmission
C. blockage of the Nm receptors
D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- Select reasons for using muscle relaxants during surgical or diagnostic procedures.
A. reduce muscle tear
B. decrease body temperature
C. potentiate vasodilators
D. increase muscle tone
E. depress respiration - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as
muscarinic-M1 receptor.
muscarinic-M2 receptor.
muscarinic-M3 receptor.
muscarinic-M4 receptor.
muscarinic-M5 receptor. - CORRECT ANSWERS B
- A 25-year old female presents with delirium, hyperthermia, and symptoms of central anticholinergic intoxication. She has attended a ìwitches' conventî and ingested some herbal extracts including fruits of the species ìAtropa belladonna.î As one component of her treatment, she receives a dose of physostigmine.
Refer to the case above. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine because
A) it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine.
B) it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emergency treatment.
C) it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine.
D) it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function.
E) it is eliminated via the liver, and dosage is not critical with compromised renal function. - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. opioid analgesics produce little or no respiration depression with long-term use of analgesic doses
B. opioid antagonists include endorphins
C. all drugs in the opioid analgesic group are controlled substances, Schedule III
D. in low doses, opioids produce nausea and vomiting
E. fentanyl is a partial opioid antagonist - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Oxycodone in therapeutic doses can stimulate mu receptors to cause
A. hyperventilation and deep breathing
B. bronchospasms
C. spasmogenic activity in the ureters and sphincter muscle
D. relaxation of the skeletal muscles controlling posture (spasmolytic)
E. suppression of coughing - CORRECT ANSWERS D
- Opioid analgesics are used in which of the following settings?
A. induction of Monitored Anesthesia Care and treatment of chronic severe pain
B. routine treatment of migraine
C. unmonitored treatment of chronic severe pain
D. analgesia for patients with paralytic ileus
E. chronic osteoarthritis - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. endorphin is an abbreviation from the terms meaning inside the organ
B. endogenous opioid receptors include mu, alpha-2 adrenergic, and delta receptors
C. agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and causes a response
D. opioid agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and stimulates the release of endorphins
E. tolerance is a characteristic of chronic opioid antagonism - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- Which of the following drugs has a recognized medical therapy and does not interact with opioid receptors?
A. heroin
B. codeine
C. methadone
B. opium
C. chemical synthesis
D. alkaloids
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWERS E
- Select the adverse effects of opioid analgesics.
A. constipation
B. polyuria
C. convulsions
D. mydriasis
E. excessive tearing - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- During tolerance to opioid analgesics, the following is happening.
A. fewer receptors are available to produce a response
B. increased pain by the patient requires greater doses of medication
C. the body reacts to removal of the opioid analgesic
D. histamine release causes hypotension
E. signals from nocieocptors are reduced - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- What is the best reason for using a balanced anesthesia strategy? (LO 18.1)
A. producing complementary effects using a few drugs avoids unnecessary intense (deep) CNS depression with one anesthetic to achieve the same effect
B. the concentration of volatile anesthetic in the alveoli is balanced against the amount of anesthetic in the blood
C. less monitoring of anesthesia is required
D. fewer patients experience emergence delirium
E. there is less chance of aspirating saliva - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Why is propofol a drug of choice for induction and maintenance of anesthesia?
A. it is a potent analgesic at all doses
B. it slowly brings the patient to the stage of surgical anesthesia
C. it is a complete anesthetic with a quick onset of action and recovery period uncomplicated by nausea and vomiting
D. it is administered by special vaporizer to avoid mask delivery
E. its preparation does not require special handling technique - CORRECT ANSWERS C
- Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. ketamine causes chloride ions to flow out of the nerve cell by binding to GABA
B. propofol binds to the GABA A receptor and enhances hyperpolarization of the neuron
C. barbiturates and propofol act on the receptor and directly on the chloride channel
D. potent anesthetics enhance GABA A receptor function
E. general anesthetics interact with neurotransmitter-gated ion channels - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Which of the following major routes remove etomidate and midazolam from the body?
A. hepatic metabolism and renal excretion
B. excretion through the lungs and sweating
C. accumulation in fat tissue and redistribution
D. increased salivation and bile production
E. gastrointestinal reabsorption - CORRECT ANSWERS A
- Select the types of anesthesia in which there is no loss of consciousness.
A. local anesthesia
