Pharmacotherapeutics 2024: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Exercises of Nursing

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NUR 3145

Pharmacotherap

eutics 2024

1. Patient presents to ED with dry, non-productive cough. Patient has been diagnosed with bronchitis, and it has been determined medicine is needed to initiate sputum so the cough will be productive. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician will prescribe? a. Guaifenesin (correct answer) b. Sucralfate c. H2 receptor agonist d. Diphenhydramine
2. A patient has been diagnosed with asthma and prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS). The nurse providing discharge teaching should state that: a. Inhaled ICS are not for use for acute asthma attacks or status asthmaticus. (correct answer) b. ICS can be used as rescue medications. c. ICS will cure asthma. d. ICS are inhaled once a week.
3. A patient with asthma has been prescribed an anti-inflammatory medication. The patient asks the nurse how this medication works. The nurse should respond: a. Increases ability to metabolize medication in lower bronchioles b. Decreases ability of mucus secretion (correct answer) c. Decreases airway inflammation d. Increases uptake of corticosteroids

7. Which of the following medications provides the best anti- inflammatory effect for the treatment of asthma? a. Fluticasone and salmeterol (correct answer) b. Montelukast c. Theophylline d. Cromolyn
8. A nurse questions the order when omeprazole is prescribed to a patient taking Plavix (clopidogrel). The nurse knows the adverse effect is: a. Antiplatelet effect will be more effective b. Patient may experience a lower risk of bleeding c. The antiplatelet effect will be less effective (correct answer)
9. A nurse giving discharge instructions to a patient with a prescription for an antihistamine informs the patient they are receiving the most sedating antihistamine. Which antihistamine is the most sedating? a. Benadryl (correct answer) b. Zyrtec c. Claritin d. Allegra
10. A patient with a history of angina has been prescribed pseudoephedrine for nasal congestion. The nurse understands that pseudoephedrine should not be used by: a. Patients with any type of heart disease (correct answer)

b. It is safe to take pseudoephedrine if you're only taking labetalol. c. Rebound congestion is more common when a person with angina takes pseudoephedrine. d. It is safe to use pseudoephedrine if you're only taking nitroglycerin.

11. Which medication prescribed for asthma has a narrow therapeutic range and must be monitored with plasma drug levels? a. Theophylline (correct answer) b. Albuterol c. Fluticasone d. Beclomethasone
12. A nurse counsels a patient using two different types of medication, a SABA and an inhaled glucocorticoid. The patient questions the purpose of the inhaler. The nurse's best response would be that glucocorticoids are prescribed to help control asthma symptoms by: a. Decreasing inflammation (correct answer) b. Increasing oxygen delivery c. Relaxing airway smooth muscle d. Decreasing mucus production
13. How do H2 receptor blockers physiologically promote ulcer healing? a. Suppress gastric acid secretion (correct answer) b. Increase gastric mucosal blood flow

a. True (correct answer) b. False

18. Which medication can reduce the effect of clopidogrel, an antiplatelet? a. Carafate b. PPIs (correct answer) c. Insulin d. Metformin
19. Which class of diuretics is particularly therapeutic in patients with renal impairment? a. Thiazide b. Loop diuretics (correct answer) c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Potassium-sparing
20. Which drug class is the most effective antiemetic? a. Carafate b. Phenergan c. Zofran (correct answer) d. Reglan
21. What are the therapeutic uses of Reglan, a prokinetic drug? a. Decrease nausea and vomiting (correct answer) b. Decrease heartburn c. Relieve the feeling of fullness long after meals (correct answer) d. Relieve symptoms of slow stomach emptying (correct answer)

22. Long-term therapy with Reglan can lead to: a. Ototoxicity b. Extrapyramidal reactions (correct answer) c. Anticholinergic effects d. Tardive dyskinesia (correct answer)
23. List the adverse effects of laxatives: a. Hypotension b. Dehydration (correct answer) c. Electrolyte imbalances, such as decreased sodium (correct answer) d. Apnea
24. Compazine and Phenergan suppress: a. Releasing dopamine D receptors in the CTZ (correct answer) b. By decreasing the feeling of fullness c. Slowing stomach emptying d. By blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
25. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with diarrhea and advises that the most effective anti-diarrheal medication is: a. Reglan b. Zofran c. Sucralfate d. Lomotil (correct answer)
26. What adverse effect may occur when lithium is combined with Lasix? a. Low sodium levels in the body can increase lithium levels (correct answer)

c. Insulin d. Calcium gluconate, insulin, glucose (correct answer)

30. The nurse practitioner prescribes medication used to treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness caused by motion sickness. Which medication may also be used to reduce dizziness and loss of balance? a. Meclizine (correct answer) b. Diphenhydramine c. Promethazine d. Ondansetron
31. Match the following medications with their class: a. Xolair - Bronchodilator b. Benadryl - Antihistamine c. Hydrocodone - Cough Suppressant
32. Match the GI medications with their classes: a. Ex-Lax - Stimulant b. Metamucil - Bulk-forming c. Colace - Softener d. M.O.M. - Antacid
33. The nurse is caring for a patient taking Lasix (furosemide). The nurse should expect which side effect of this medication? a. Lower blood pressure (correct answer) b. Visual disturbances

c. Tremors d. Farsightedness

34. A patient taking lisinopril and spironolactone should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects? a. Hyperkalemia (correct answer) b. Ototoxicity c. Fever d. Hypotension
35. A patient has taken a high dose of oral glucocorticoids for two months for severe asthma. The symptoms have resolved. The nurse teaches the patient how to discontinue the medication: a. Doses should be tapered over the course of seven to ten days. (correct answer)
36. Which of the following medications are used for allergic rhinitis? a. All of them. (correct answer) b. Only antihistamines c. Only nasal corticosteroids d. Only leukotriene modifiers
37. A patient calls the physician's office and asks how many motion sickness pills he can take. The correct response is: a. Adults can take one diphenhydramine every 10 hours b. Adults can take one diphenhydramine every four to six hours

41. The patient is taking a multivitamin that includes vitamin K. Which drug taken with vitamin K would be less effective? a. Warfarin (correct answer) b. Digoxin c. Aspirin d. Furosemide
42. A patient may experience flushing when using which medication to treat dyslipidemia? a. Niacin (correct answer) b. Statins c. Fibrates d. Ezetimibe
43. Which of the following drugs is a prokinetic medication? a. Reglan (correct answer) b. Senna c. Diphenhydramine d. Promethazine
44. Which anti-emetic is contraindicated in children under age 2? a. Phenergan (correct answer) b. Zofran c. Meclizine d. Reglan

45. Which of the following labs would be of concern in a patient with prolonged diarrhea? a. BUN 22 (correct answer) b. Sodium 135 c. Potassium 3.0 (correct answer) d. HCT 35
46. Match the following medications to their drug class: a. Short acting - Albuterol b. Long acting - Salmeterol c. Short acting muscarinic - Ipratropium d. Long acting muscarinic - Tiotropium
47. A patient calls and asks the nurse what is the best OTC medication for motion sickness. The nurse responds: a. Dramamine and Meclizine (correct answer) b. Phenergan c. Kytril d. Zofran
48. A patient being discharged with montelukast asks about the long-term effects of the medication. The nurse responds: a. Agitation (correct answer) b. Disorientation or confusion c. Depression (correct answer) d. Hallucination

53. Match the following medications: a. Reglan - Antiemetic b. Calcium carbonate - Antacid c. Compazine - Antipsychotic and antiemetic
54. The following medication has been banned due to opioid painkiller seeking dangerously high doses or to treat withdrawal symptoms: a. Imodium (correct answer) b. Carafate c. PPI d. Diphenoxylate
55. A nurse administers Reglan postoperatively. The nurse knows its pathophysiological effects are to: a. Reduce motility in the small intestine (correct answer) b. Increase gastric acid secretion c. Increase heart rate d. Promote mucosal healing
56. A nurse administers omeprazole to increase an enzyme that increases gastric acid in a patient with a duodenal ulcer. True or False? a. True b. False (correct answer)
57. A nurse assesses a male patient who develops gynecomastia while receiving treatment for PUD. Which medication in the patient’s

history should be recognized as a contributing factor? a. Aspirin b. Omeprazole c. Flagyl d. Cimetidine (correct answer)

58. A nurse administering omeprazole to a patient with acute coronary syndrome at the same time as clopidogrel (Plavix) should be aware of the risk that: a. Warfarin will be less effective b. Clopidogrel will be less effective (correct answer) c. Digoxin will be less effective d. Aspirin will be more effective
59. Which of the following medications in a patient's medical history may relate to the development of vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency? a. Chronic alcohol use (correct answer) b. Gastric resection c. Opioid addiction d. Multiple surgeries
60. Match the following to their drug class: a. Cimetidine - Histamine H2 blockers b. Omeprazole - PPI c. Sucralfate - Mucosal protectant d. Calcium carbonate - Antacid

65. Diphenoxylate combined with atropine and loperamide is used to treat: a. GERD b. Diarrhea (correct answer) c. Constipation d. Stomach acid
66. The following describes the difference between PPIs and H receptors: a. PPIs are faster and stronger than H2 blockers (correct answer)
67. The classes of diuretics include all except: a. Loop b. Thiazides c. Potassium-sparing d. Low molecular weight (correct answer) e. Osmotic f. Carbonic anhydrase
68. Diuretics work pathophysiologically in the body by: a. Moving from an area of high concentration to low concentration (correct answer) b. Moving from an area of low concentration to high concentration c. Increasing the amount of urine produced by the kidneys and sodium secretion (correct answer) d. Only shifting fluid from intracellular to extracellular

69. The following medications are thiazide-like diuretics except: a. Hydrochlorothiazide b. Chlorthalidone c. Indapamide d. Except for those ending in -thiazide (correct answer)
70. The following medications are loop diuretics: a. Lasix (correct answer) b. Chlorothiazide c. Torsemide (correct answer) d. Bumetanide (correct answer)