Download PMHNP ANCC Exam 2025 150+ Questions with Verified Answers and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity!
PMHNP ANCC Exam 2025 150+ Questions with
Verified Answers
Descriptive Vividness - correct answer>>The researcher describes the data gathering process in sufficient detail that the reader can personally experience it. The data collected, often in the form of personal statements, should be quoted directly and extensively, because this is the raw data from the study. Methodological Congruence - correct answer>>The researcher presents the philosophical and methodological approach used and cites references to support their approach. The subjects, sampling method, data-gathering and data-analysis strategies, and processes for informed consent are clearly and concisely described. Theoretical Conectedness - correct answer>>Any theory developed from the study is clearly stated, logically consistent, reflective of the data, and in accord with other available knowledge. Analytical Precision - correct answer>>Is not concerned with statistics and instruments. If refers to the decision-making process by which the researchers synthesize concrete data (words of the subjects) into an abstract that clarifies the meaning and the importance of the study. The last of the 5 criteria is Heuristic Relevance - The researcher clarifies the significance of the study, its applicability to public health or community nursing, and its likely influence o the future research. Phenelzine - correct answer>>An MAOI that patients with atypical depression respond particularly well to. Atomoxetine - correct answer>>A norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor approved for the treatment of ADHD. Loxapine - correct answer>>A typical, tetracyclic antipsychotic with antidepressant properties. Its active metabolite is amoxapine, which is a secondary amine tricyclic antidepressant.
HITECH - correct answer>>Implementation of EHR for information exchanges and improving population health. This was done by Obama and the ARRA. Suppression - correct answer>>The intentional or conscious exclusion of painful or disturbing thoughts or emotions from awareness. A healthy defense mechanism because the client channels conflicting energies into growth-promoting activities. Medications that can induce depression - correct answer>>beta blockers, steroids, interferon, Accutane, benzodiazepines, progesterone, some antivirals, and antineoplasmics. Medications that can induce mania - correct answer>>Steroids, Isoniazid, antidepressants (in people who already have bipolar disorder), and Antabuse. Medigap Insurance Policies - correct answer>>Private insurance policies purchased by elderly individuals to cover some or all of their medical expenses not paid for by Medicare. Medicare Advantage Plan - correct answer>>Formerly Medicare + Choice, this created regional Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) and gave Medicare enrollees the option of enrolling in private insurance plans. Medicare + Choice - correct answer>>Was a part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 that significantly increase the number of managed care insurance plans available to recipients. This was replaced with the Medicare Advantage Plan in
List of the Second Generation (atypical) Antipsychotics (9) - correct answer>>Clozaril (clozapine), Zyprexa (olanzapine), Latuda (lurasidone), ziprasidone, Risperdal (risperidone), Invega Sustenna (palperidone), Fanapt (iloperidone), Seroquel (quetiapine), Saphris (asenapine), List of First Generation (typical) Antipsychotics (10) - correct answer>>Haldol (haloperidol), Prolixin (fluphenazine), Navane (thiothixene), Thorazine (chlorpromazine), Loxitane (loxapine), Mellaril (thioridazine), Trilafon (perphenazine), Orap (pimozide), Solian amisulpride), Stellazine (trifluoperazine)
blurred vision, nystagmus, increased DTRs, altered mental status, cardiac dysrhythmias Signs of Serotonin Snydrome - correct answer>>agitation, restlessness, rapid heart rate, blood pressure elevation, headache, sweating, shivering, goose bumps, myoclonic jerking and loss of coordination, confusion, fevers, unconsciousness, seizures Medications that can increase lithium level - correct answer>>NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors (-prils), ARBs (-sartans), tetracyclines, metronidazole Medications that can decrease lithium level - correct answer>>potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, theophylline Clozaril - monitoring considerations - correct answer>>Monitor ANC (absolute neutrophil count); pt needs an ANC of at least 1500 to start clozaril therapy; watch for Benign Ethnic Neutropenia (BED); Monitor ANC weekly x6 months, every 2 weeks x6 months, then monthly if ANC is at least 1500. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for PCP & methadone - correct answer>>Niquil, OTC cough meds Substances that can cause a false + drug test for heroin & morphine - correct answer>>rifampin, fluoroquniolones Substances that can cause a false + drug test for cocaine - correct answer>>NSAIDs, amoxicillin, most antibiotics Substances that can cause a false + drug test for amphetamines - correct answer>>Prozac, Wellbutrin, Trazodone, Nefazodone, Sudafed, OTC decongestants. Schizophrenia Prevalence: Non-twin siblings of a schizophrenic parent Dizygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent Monozygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent - correct answer>>8% 12%
Birth defects caused by benzodiazepines - correct answer>>Cleft palate, floppy baby syndrome Birth defects caused by carbamazepine - correct answer>>Neural tube defects Birth defects caused by depakote - correct answer>>Neural tube defects (spina bifida), cleft palate, atrial-septal defects, long-term developmental deficits CYP450 Inhibitors - correct answer>>bupropion, clomipramine, cimetidine, clarithromycin, fluoroquinolone, grapefruit, ketoconazole, nefazodone, SSRIs CYP450 Inducers - correct answer>>carbamazepine, nicotine, hypericum (St. John's wort), phenytoin, phenobarbital Normals lab value for AST (aspartate aminotransferase) - correct answer>> 5 - 40 Normal lab value for ALT (alanine aminotransferase) - correct answer>> 5 - 35 Normal lab value for Alkaline Phosphastase - correct answer>> 44 - 147; male be increased in gallbladder disease & with bone injury /rapid bone growth Creatine Kinase (normal range) - correct answer>><240. Measures muscle injury (heart, brain, and skeletal). Increased in MI (CK-MO), myositis, NMS BUN (normal range) - correct answer>> 10 - 20. Creatinine - correct answer>>0.4-0.8 or less than 1. Normal GFR - correct answer>>>90 mL/min. If a patient is on psychotropics, as long as their GRF is >60, no dose adjustments need to be made. What is the best measure of kidney function? - correct answer>>GFR (glomerular filtration rate) Normal Plate Count - correct answer>>140,000-340,
Drug Category X and examples - correct answer>>Absolutely Contraindicated in pregnancy Accutane, misoprostol, thalidomide, flurazepam, temazepam, triazolam Types of inferential statistics - correct answer>>p-value, Pearson's r correlation, t- test,ANOVA T-test - correct answer>>Compares whether the means of two groups are statistically different ANOVA - correct answer>>tests the differences of 3 or more groups Pearson's r correlation - correct answer>>tests the relationship between 2 variables HLB-B*1502 - correct answer>>Allele that some asian's have which makes them unable to metabolize carbamazepine, increasing their risk for Steven's-Johnson syndrome which can lead to toxic epithelial necrolysis. Asians must be tests for this gene prior to beginning therapy. TIGER - correct answer>>technology competencies for NPs to improve access to quality & patient experience Who is covered by Medicare? - correct answer>>Adults >65 who have worked at least 4 quarters and paid Medicare taxes End stage renal disease those who need a kidney transplant those with ALS Some younger people with disabilities Those receiving SSDI Who is covered by Medicaid? - correct answer>>Low-income children Low-income pregnant women Elderly & disable individuals who qualify for the supplemental security income program
HAM-D (Hamilton Depression Scale) - correct answer>> 17 - 21 questions. Each question with 3-5 possible responses that increase in severity. 0 - 7 normal
or = 20 moderately severe depression BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) - correct answer>>21 questions, scores range 0-
0 - 13: minimal depression 14 - 19: mild depression 20 - 28: moderate depression 29 - 63: severe depression Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) - correct answer>>10 questions. > or = possible depression SLUMS (St. Louis University Mental Status Exam) - correct answer>>HS Education: Normal: 27- 30 MCI: 20- 27 Dementia: 1- 19 Less than HS education: Normal: 20- 30 MCI: 14- 19 Dementia: 1- 14 CIWA - correct answer>>Very mild: 0- 9 Mild: 10- 15 Moderate: 16- 20 Severe: 21- 26 PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire 9) - correct answer>>9 questions 1 - 4 minimal depression 5 - 9 mild depression 10 - 14 moderate depression 15 - 19 moderately severe depression 20 - 27 severe depression
Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to have rapid cycling: men or women? - correct answer>>Women Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to have comorbid alcohol used disorder and eating disorders: men or women? - correct answer>>Women Schedule II Drugs - correct answer>>morphine, codeine, fentanyl, methadone, Percocet, oxycontin, Dilaudid, amphetamines, methylphenidate. Schedule III Drugs - correct answer>>Appetite suppressants, butalbital, testosterone, suboxone Schedule IV Drugs - correct answer>>benzodiazepines, Ambien, Lunesta, Provigil, Nuvigil, phenobarbital, dextropropoxyphene (Darvon), and pentazocine (Talwin) Schedule V Drugs - correct answer>>buprenorphine, cheritussin (Robitussin) with codeine, promethazine (Phenergan) with codeine, diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) Role of hypothalamus - correct answer>>homeostasis; basic needs (eating drinking, temperature regulation, sleep-wake cycle). Braine stem reponsibility and parts - correct answer>>Pons, Midbrain, medulla oblongata Regulates BP, respirations, level of arousal, and digestions. Relays information to the cerebellum Thalamus - correct answer>>transmits sensory information to the cerebrum. influences affect, mood, and body movements associated with strong emotions. Kohlberg - correct answer>>Stages of Moral Development 6 Domains in Diagnosing Neurocognitive Disorders - correct answer>>1. Complex Attention
- Executive Function
- Learning Memory
- Language
- Perceptual Motor Ability
- Social cognition Mesolimbic Pathway - correct answer>>Responsible for POSITIVE symptoms of schizophrenia all antipsychotics block DA receptors (specifically D2) in this pathway Excess DA in this pathway leads to + symptoms (psychosis) Reward-oriented Associated with mood disorders, psychoses, and drug abuse Mesocortical Pathway - correct answer>>Responsible for NEGATIVE symptoms of schizophrenia, cognition, planning and behavior. Nigrostriatal Pathways - correct answer>>Responsible for voluntary and involuntary movements. Insufficient DA in this pathway is implicated in Parkinson's disease. Tuberoinfundibular Pathway - correct answer>>Responsible for prolactin production. Extends to the pituitary gland where prolactin is regulated. Otto Kernberg - correct answer>>Psychoanalytic therapy with antisocial and borderline personality disorders. Carl Rogers - correct answer>>Humanistic approach; unconditional positive regard; described the individual as an energy field existing within the universe 4 focuses of IPT (interpersonal therapy) - correct answer>>1. Complicated bereavement
- Role Dispute
- Role Transition
- Interpersonal Deficits Maslow's Hierarchy - correct answer>>1. Physiologic Needs (food, water, warmth, rest) 2.Safety/security
- Belongingness and love
Generativity vs Stagnation - correct answer>>Age: 35- 65 Mastery: ability to give time and talents to others and ability to care for others Failure: self-absorption, inability to grow-change as a person, inability to care for others Integrity vs Despair - correct answer>>age 65+ Mastery: fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face heath, insight and balanced perspective on life's events Failure: biternes, sense of dissatisfaction with life, despair over impending death. Piaget Stages - correct answer>>1. Sensorimotor
- Pre-operational
- Concrete Operational
- Formal Operational Sensorimotor Stage - correct answer>> 0 - 2 years Infants develop object permanence (the realization that people exist even when they cannot be seen) Pre-operational - correct answer>> 3 - 6 years Egocentrism prominent during this stage. Children develop language, symbolic thinking. Concrete Operational - correct answer>> 7 - 11 years Development of logical thought, but it is still more concrete than abstract. Developing the understanding of the concept of conservation. Formal Operational - correct answer>>12+ years Development of hypothetical-deductive reasoning, may have an imaginary audience, personal fable, propositional thinking Freud Stages - correct answer>>1. Oral 0-18 months
- Anal 18 mos-2 years
- Phallic 3-6 years
- Latency 7-11 years
- Genital 12+ years
Oral Stage - correct answer>>Age: 0- 18 mos Activities: put everything in their mouth. sucking, chewing, feeding, crying Failure: schizophrenia, paranoia, substance abuse Anal Stage - correct answer>>Age: 18 mos - 2 years Activities: fixated on toilet training and sphincter control, activities of expulsion and retention Failure: depressive disorders Phallic Stage - correct answer>>Age: 3-6 years Activities: Exhibitionism, masturbation with focus on Oedipal Conflict, sexual fantasies about opposite sex parent, castration anxiety (males), hear of loss of maternal love (females) Failure: Sexual identity disorders Latency Stage - correct answer>>Age: 7 - 11 years Activities: peer relationships, learning, motor skills development, socialization Failure: inability to form social relationships Genital Stage - correct answer>>Age: 12+ years Activities: integration and synthesis of behaviors from early stages, primary genital-based sexuality Failure: Sexual perversion disorders Durham vs the United States (1954) - correct answer>>Origin of the insanity defense. Determined than an individual is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of mental illness. O'connor vs Donaldson (1976) - correct answer>>Ruled that harmless mentally ill patients cannot be conned against their will. Determined that the presence of a mental illness alone cannot justify involuntary hospitalization. Rennie vs Klein (1979) - correct answer>>Determined that patients may have the right to refuse any treatment and use an appeal process.
Cranial Nerve VII - correct answer>>Facial Both Facial expressions. Sensation on face. Saliva and tears secretion. Taste (identify sugar, vinegar, and salt with eyes closed). Movement of facial muscles: frown, smile, raise eyebrows, puff out cheeks Cranial Nerve VIII - correct answer>>Acoustic (vestibulocochlear) Sensory Hearing: Weber and Rinne test, Whisper Test. Audiometer. Equilibrium, sensation. Cranial Nerve IX - correct answer>>Glossopharyngeal Both Taste on anterior 2/3 tongue. Tongue movement. Test with vagus nerve. Cranial Nerve X - correct answer>>Vagus Both Carotid blood pressure regulation, lower HR, gag reflex (put tongue depressor on back of tongue), taste, stimulated digestive organs. Test with glossopharyngeal nerve). Check for elevation of uvula by having pt open mouth, say "ahh". Cranial Nerve XI - correct answer>>Spinal Accessory Motor Move face against examiners hand (test SCM), and shrug shoulders against examiner (trapezius muscle). Also controls swallowing. Have them sip water. Cranial Nerve XII - correct answer>>Hypoglossal Motor (tongue movement) Stick out tongue and wiggle side to side; protrude tongue and check for involuntary movements. Patient's Access to Responsible Care Alliance - correct answer>>A coalition of organizations that represent the interests of millions of patients & non-phyisican healthcare providers.
Pharmacodynamics - correct answer>>What the drug does to the body (target sites for drug actions). Examples: receptors, ion channels, enzymes, carrier proteins. Transtheoretical Model Stages of Changes - correct answer>>Precontemplation contemplation preparation action maintenance termination Excitatory Response - correct answer>>Depolarization. Involves opening of sodium & calcium channels so these ion channels can enter the cell. Inhibitory Response - correct answer>>Repolarization. Involved the opening of chloride channels so chloride can enter the cell & potassium can leave the cell. Schedule I Drugs - correct answer>>Heroin, Marijuana Who developed motivational interview (MI)? - correct answer>>William Miller and Stephen Rollnick Minuchen - correct answer>>Developed Structural Family Therapy.vFamily is an organization/structure; learn each member's likes and goals to change the family structure. Bowen - correct answer>>Develeped family systems therapy. Individuals problem behavior may serve a purpose as having a unique role in their family unit. The goal of this therapy is homeostasis. Gonzalez-Jaimes and Turnbull Plaza developed what? - correct answer>>"mirror psychotherapy" for patients with adjustment disorder and depressed moof secondary have having a myocardial infarction. Nightingale's view of the nurse's role - correct answer>>The nurse is the provider of fresh-air, light, cleanliness, warmth, quiet, and nutrition.
Medical savings account - correct answer>>a healthcare reform plan that allows individuals to establish tax-free savings funds to finance their medical care Pharmacokinetics - correct answer>>What the body does to the drug. Types include: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion. Cerebellum - correct answer>>coordinates balance, posture, movement, memory, impulse control, cognition, language Hippocampus - correct answer>>involved in memory and converting short-term memory into long term memory; learning Amygdala - correct answer>>regulates basic powerful emotions: fear, rage, sexual desire Bowlby - correct answer>>attachment theory: kids who come from parents with highly expressed emotions and unresolved losses tend to develop disorganized attachment characterized by not feeling safe with their caregivers & an inability to feel soothing comfort antagonistic effect - correct answer>>drug binds to receptors and activates a biological response inverse agonist - correct answer>>drug causes the opposite effect of an agonist partial agonistic effect - correct answer>>drug does not fully activate the receptors antagonistic effect - correct answer>>drug binds to the receptor but does not activate a biological response. carbamazepine and lamotrigine drug-drug interaction - correct answer>>when taken together, carbamazepine will cause an increase in lamotrigine levels in the blood(up to 200% increase) First generation antipsychotics mechanism of action - correct answer>>blocks dopamine everywhere.
