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70+ PMP Exam Questions and
Answers with Explanation
Q1. A project manager is informed that a key stakeholder is dissatisfied with the project outcomes. What should the project manager do first? A. Meet with the key stakeholder to better understand their concerns B. Update the lessons learned documentation with the new information C. Present the concerns at the next team meeting to get feedback D. Revise the project management plan to address the concerns Answer: A Explanation: The first thing a project manager should do when learning of a dissatisfied stakeholder is to meet with that stakeholder directly to gain a deeper understanding of their concerns. Then appropriate actions can be taken to address the concerns. Q2. During project execution, a team member reports that a key activity will take longer than originally estimated. What should the project manager do first? A. Ask the team member to complete the activity as quickly as possible B. Determine the impact on project schedule and cost estimates C. Report the issue to the project sponsor
D. Update the risk register with this new risk Answer: B Explanation: Whenever an activity is going to take longer than expected, the PM should first assess the impact on the overall project schedule and cost estimates. Understanding the implications allows the PM to determine the best course of action. Q3. A project manager is preparing the final project presentation for stakeholders. Where should they document lessons learned from the project? A. Issue log B. Project management plan C. Project documents updates D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Explanation: Lessons learned should be documented in the organizational process assets. These archives allow future project managers to benefit from the experience gained on past projects. Q4. Which of the following tools would a project manager use to evaluate the completeness of the project scope statement? A. Context diagram B. Stakeholder register C. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Submit a revised business case D. Obtain approval for the scope change Answer: D Explanation: Changes in scope, even on agile projects, should be approved through the proper change control process before work begins. This ensures stakeholders are in agreement. Q7. A project manager establishes the sequence of project activities using which of the following tools? A. Critical path analysis B. Resource leveling C. Critical chain method D. Precedence diagramming Answer: D Explanation: A precedence diagram shows the logical sequence of activities and dependencies between activities to create the project schedule. Q8. A project manager is developing a schedule for a software development project. The project management plan requires each scheduled activity to be less than 2 days. Which technique should the project manager use to meet this requirement? A. Resource leveling B. Critical chain method
C. Critical path analysis D. Fast tracking Answer: B Explanation: The critical chain method requires breaking down activity durations to be less than 5- 15 days. This helps improve schedule predictability. Q9. A project is expected to take 12 weeks to complete. However, the sponsor requests that the project finish 2 weeks earlier. What technique could help the project manager compress the schedule? A. Crashing B. Fast tracking C. Resource smoothing D. Critical path analysis Answer: A Explanation: Crashing involves adding resources or working overtime on critical path activities to shorten their duration and complete the project faster. Q10. A project manager needs to fund key activities early in the project schedule. Which cost management tool could they use? A. Reserve analysis B. Sunk costs
C. Three-point estimating D. Parametric estimating Answer: D Explanation: Parametric estimating uses established cost-per-unit metrics to estimate total costs based on project parameters and historical data. get pmp certified with our pmp certification course Q13. During project execution, a project manager tracks defects and fixes to prevent reoccurrence. What tool are they using? A. Control charts B. Design of experiments C. Statistical sampling D. Quality audits Answer: A Explanation: A control chart plots data over time to identify trends and variations from expected results, signaling potential problems needing corrective action. Q14. A project manager is overseeing software development and wants to use a structured test approach. What technique should they implement? A. Reviews
B. Inspection C. Pilot testing D. Walkthroughs Answer: B Explanation: Inspections follow a defined process for identifying defects in work products, and are commonly used in software development. Q15. A key project deliverable did not meet the quality standards established in the quality management plan. What should the project manager have done differently? A. Implemented more quality audits during execution B. Performed quality control more frequently C. Allocated more time for quality assurance planning D. Enforced stricter performance metrics Answer: B Explanation: Quality control during execution could have identified deficiencies earlier so corrections could be made before final acceptance. Q16. A project manager is forming the project team. What should be the PM’s FIRST consideration? A. Level of technical expertise required B. Experience working on similar projects
C. Resource allocation D. Resource utilization Answer: B Explanation: Resource leveling adjusts assignments across activities to avoid overloading resources. This helps balance the workload. Q19. During project planning, a project manager employs a matrix ranking each stakeholder based on their power, interest, and influence over the project. What tool are they using? A. Stakeholder register B. Stakeholder analysis matrix C. Communication matrix D. RACI chart Answer: B Explanation: A stakeholder analysis matrix ranks and maps stakeholders on various attributes to prioritize engagement. Q20. What is the BEST way for a project manager to gain support from resistant stakeholders? A. Modify the project charter to meet their needs B. Share selected information and gather feedback
C. Arrange a meeting with senior leadership D. Add them to the communication plan Answer: B Explanation: Sharing specific project information tailored to the resistant stakeholder and gathering their feedback can help gain their support. Q21. A project sponsor asks the project manager for a status update. The project is behind schedule and over budget. What should the PM communicate? A. Assure the sponsor they will bring the project back on track B. Provide unfiltered facts and the PM’s assessment C. Explain they are waiting on team members to finish their tasks D. Promise to work overtime until the project is back on track Answer: B Explanation: The PM should give sponsors objective data along with insightful analysis, even if negative. The sponsor needs complete visibility. Q22. A construction project manager plans to subcontract some project work. What document defines the subcontracted work to be performed? A. Statement of work B. Contract management plan
C. Issue a cure notice giving time to correct D. Procure a new vendor Answer: C Explanation: A cure notice gives the vendor time and opportunity to resolve the issue before pursuing contract termination. Q25. A project manager is developing a risk management plan. Which of the following is a tool or technique used for qualitative risk analysis? A. Probability and impact matrix B. Statistical modeling C. Interviews D. Reserve analysis Answer: C Explanation: Conducting interviews with project stakeholders is a useful technique for identifying risks that may not be captured otherwise. Q26. A project faces a risk that could substantially delay project completion. What should the project manager do FIRST in response? A. Create a contingency reserve B. Implement the risk response plan
C. Update the risk register D. Perform quantitative risk analysis Answer: B Explanation: The risk response plan outlines agreed-upon responses to identified risks. It should be implemented when a risk materializes to minimize impact. Q27. Which risk response strategy involves adjusting project management plans to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Accept D. Exploit Answer: A Explanation: Risk mitigation seeks to reduce risk impact or likelihood through targeted strategies and actions. Q28. A project sponsor requested an update on project’s progress. However, the report presented contains highly technical details. What should the project manager have done differently? A. Summarized the report data in a dashboard B. Asked team members to explain the report
C. Stakeholder register D. Communications management plan Answer: D Explanation: The communications management plan defines project communication needs and strategies. It includes the communication matrix. Q31. A project is approved and launched. The project manager begins planning all aspects of project execution according to the project charter. What process is the project manager engaged in? A. Develop Project Charter B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Direct and Manage Project Work D. Monitor and Control Project Work Answer: B Explanation: The Develop Project Management Plan process establishes how the project will be planned, executed, monitored, controlled and closed. It creates the overall project roadmap. Q32. A new project manager is assigned to take over an existing project mid-execution. What document should the new PM review FIRST? A. Lessons learned B. Issue log
C. Project management plan D. Risk register Answer: C Explanation: The project management plan contains all information on how the project was intended to be executed. The new PM should review it first for context. Q33. The project sponsor requests adding new features during project execution that were not included in the original project scope. What should the project manager do FIRST? A. Inform the team to begin work on the new features B. Add the new features to the scope management plan C. Analyze the feasibility and impact of including the new features D. Update the WBS with the additional work Answer: C Explanation: A change request to modify the scope must be analyzed for impacts before approval. The PM does not have the authority to expand the scope unilaterally. Q34. A project manager discovers that a team member falsifies test results to hide defects in a project deliverable. What is the BEST course of action for the PM? A. Terminate the team member immediately B. Discuss the situation only with upper management
C. Decline to make any recommendation due to the conflict of interest D. Award the contract to the lowest bidder regardless of relationship Answer: C Explanation: The PM should disclose the relationship and recuse themselves from decisions to avoid any appearance of impropriety. Q37. During project planning, a project manager develops a scope management plan and requirements documentation. What process are they engaged in? A. Define Scope B. Create WBS C. Validate Scope D. Control Scope Answer: A Explanation: The Define Scope process determines and documents project goals, deliverables, assumptions and constraints. It creates the scope baseline. Q38. The project sponsor requests adding functionality that was specifically excluded from scope based on low business value. What should the project manager explain is needed to add this functionality? A. Update the requirements traceability matrix B. Complete change control and get approval
C. Revise the scope management plan D. Issue a change request to close out the feature Answer: B Explanation: Adding excluded functionality requires formally submitting a change request and going through change control for approval. Q39. During user acceptance testing, key requirements are found to be missing from the deliverable. What should have been the project manager’s FIRST line of defense against this? A. Scope verification B. Scope validation C. Quality control D. Change control Answer: A Explanation: Scope verification progressively validates work is performed according to requirements. It prevents late discovery of gaps. Q40. A project is running behind schedule. By crash costing the critical path, the project manager calculates the budget required to meet the original deadline. What schedule compression technique is being used? A. Resource leveling B. Fast tracking
