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Practice question for ISBB, transes for hema and clinical chemistry rodriguez (summarized), Study notes of Immunology

Samplex for blood banking that tests your knowledge, summarized lecture notes to better understand topics covered in these subjects

Typology: Study notes

2022/2023

Uploaded on 01/26/2023

RashiGallardo
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Blood Banking Questions
1.
The interval between blood donation is
a.
6 weeks
b.
8 weeks
c.
10 weeks
d.
3 months
2.
The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed
a.
37C
b.
37.5C
c.
98.6F
d.
98F
3.
The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is
a.
12.5 g/dl
b.
13.0 g/dl
c.
13.5 g/dl
d.
4.0 g/dl
4.
What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors
a.
36%
b.
38%
c.
41%
d.
43%
5.
Prospective donors who have malaria should be
a.
Permanently rejected
b.
Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment
c.
Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment
d.
Deferred for six months
6.
Symnptom-free donors who have been immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps
vaccines are acceptable after a period of
a.
24 hours
b.
2 days
c.
2 weeks
d.
24 days
7.
An autologous bfdsflood donor must
a.
Be over 21 years old
b.
Be treated for bacterecimia
c.
Have at least an 11g/dl hemoglobin
d.
Be on oral iron therapy
8.
Which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood?
a.
Plasma pH decreases
b.
Plasma K decreases (it increases) constant leakage of potassium from the cells into
the surrounding plasma along a concentration gradient = Na K ATPase pump failure
c.
Plasma NH3 increases (due contamination and deterioration of blood components)
collection & re-infusion of patient's own blood opposite: homologous
increase in anaerobic metabolism of the red cells during storage and results in
accumulation of lactate with the resulting drop in pH
ammonia
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12

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Blood Banking Questions

  1. The interval between blood donation is a. 6 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 3 months
  2. The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed a. 37C b. 37.5C c. 98.6F d. 98F
  3. The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is a. 12.5 g/dl b. 13.0 g/dl c. 13.5 g/dl d. 4.0 g/dl
  4. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors a. 36% b. 38% c. 41% d. 43%
  5. Prospective donors who have malaria should be a. Permanently rejected b. Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment c. Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment d. Deferred for six months
  6. Symnptom-free donors who have been immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptable after a period of a. 24 hours b. 2 days c. 2 weeks d. 24 days
  7. An autologous bfdsflood donor must a. Be over 21 years old b. Be treated for bacterecimia c. Have at least an 11g/dl hemoglobin d. Be on oral iron therapy
  8. Which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood? a. Plasma pH decreases b. Plasma K decreases (it increases) constant leakage of potassium from the cells into the surrounding plasma along a concentration gradient = Na K ATPase pump failure c. Plasma NH3 increases (due contamination and deterioration of blood components)

collection & re-infusion of patient's own blood opposite: homologous

increase in anaerobic metabolism of the red cells during storage and results in accumulation of lactate with the resulting drop in pH

ammonia

d. Inorganic phosphate increases

  1. What is the acceptable temperature range for blood bank refrigerator? a. 1-6 C b. 1-10C c. 6-10C d. 32-37C
  2. If blood is to be transoported, the blood temperature must be kept between a. 2-8C b. 1-10C c. 1-6C d. 4-6C
  3. Which blood group system was discovered first? a. ABO (1900) b. MNS (1927) c. P (1927) d. Rh (1940)
  4. An amorph is a gene a. Which is expressed in the heterozygous state = dominant genes b. Which is expressed only in the homozygous state = recessive genes c. With no observable effect (has no ability of the parent allele to encode any functional protein) d. With a variable effect = phenotype gene
  5. Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is referred to as a. Dosage effect b. Antigenic determinant (/ epitope /portion of the antigen molecule that binds specifically with the binding site of antibody) c. Independent segregation (allele of one gene separates independently of an allele of another gene) d. Prozone zone of antibody excess, resulting in an absence of antibody-antigen precipitation or agglutination)
  6. Antibodies a. All react at 37C b. All react at 4C (IgM antibody reacting optimally at 4 °C, it usually reacts weakly or not at all at 37 °C) c. Never react at 20C d. That react at 37C are considered the most dangerous clinically
  7. Naturally occurring antibodies are found regularly in which system a. ABO = IgM b. Rh c. Kell d. Kidd
  8. Select the incorrect statement below. Naturally occurring antibodies a. React best in saline b. React best at room temperature or 4C c. Do not usually cross the placenta d. Are usually IgG (naturally occuring antibodies are IgM)

law of segregation- how alleles of a gene are segregated into two gametes and reunite after fertilization/ hereditary characteristics are segregated so that only one member of a pair of chromosomes is transmitted through any one gamete opposite: law of assortment- genes for different traits are inherited separately from one another/ how alleles of different genes independently segregate from each other during the formation of gametes

codominant- expressed whether the allele is present in the homozygous or heterozygous form

IgG typically react at or near body temperature (37 C) and are more likely to damage incompatible transfused red blood cells

b. Landsteiner c. Rosenfield d. Wiener

  1. Which of the following is true of Du? a. Du cannot be inherioted b. Du is a weak variant of the Rho (D) antigen) c. Du cells should be considered Rho(D) negative when used as donor blood d. Du is common in Caucasians
  2. A Du of the gene interaction variety would have the following genotyope a. DuCe/dce b. Duce/dce c. DuCe/dCe d. Dce/dce
  3. Anti-C will not react with a. R^1 R^2 cells b. R^1 R^1 cells c. Rr cells d. r^1 r cells
  4. antgi – E will react with a. rr cells b. R^1 r^1 cells c. Ror cells d. R^2 R^2 cells
  5. Anti-c can eb formed by persons wioth the genotype a. R^1 R^2 b. R^1 R^1 c. R^2 r d. Rr
  6. Anti-hr1 will not react with= a. Rr cells b. R^1 r cells c. R^1 R^1 cells d. R^2 R^2 cells
  7. Anti-hr” will react with a. R^2 ry^ cells b. R^1 R^1 cells c. R^2 R^2 cells d. RzRz^ cells
  8. The f antigen refers to a. Ce b. cE c. CE

d. ce

  1. the symbol for the Bombay blood group is a. OPh b. OH c. Ho d. HO
  2. All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serumk of a Bombay genotype a. Anti-A b. Anti-B c. Anti-H d. Anti-Lewis
  3. The system compose of antigens found primarily in saliva nad plasma is a. Lutheran b. Lewis c. P d. Rh
  4. In the duffy blood group system, which of the following is true? a. Fya genes are recessive b. Fyb are dominate c. Fya and Fyb genes are codominate d. Fya genes are dominate
  5. Which of these is an acquired antibody a. Anti-Lea b. Anti-Jka c. Anti-I d. Anti-N
  6. The antigen I is a. Found on al cord cells b. Absent on all cord cells c. A rare antigen d. Not found in Blacks
  7. Anti-I is usually best detected in which crossmatch phase a. Room temperature b. 37C c. Coombs phase d. All of these
  8. Select the incorrect statement a. Anti-I is opften the causative antibody in case of CHAD9Cold hemagglutinin disease) b. Anti-I reacts best with cord cells c. Anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the sera of normal individuals d. Anti-I agglutinins are usually clinically insignificant; however, they may mask more significant antibodies, such as anti-P1, anti-M and anti-Lea

a. 12% b. 36% c. 64% d. 88%

  1. When color-coding is used for donor blood labels, Group A is a. Pink b. blue c. Yellow d. Black
  2. Wjhat is the standard acceptable color for anti-a grouping serum a. Blue- green b. Colorless c. Red d. Yellow
  3. What is the color of the dye added to commercially oprepared anti-B blood grouping serum a. Yellow b. Blue c. Green d. None of the above
  4. Anti-a, b serum a. Is used to confirm group O individuals b. Ios obtained from A1B individuals c. Is obtained from group a2B individuals d. Agglutinates cells of all group O indivudlas
  5. Which of the following is not suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking a. Saline b. Serum c. Albumin d. Distilled water
  6. Which of the following enzyme is not uysed in blood bank procedures a. Ficin b. Amylase c. Bromelin d. Papain
  7. Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the a. Kidd system b. Duffy system c. Lewis system d. Rh system
  8. The technic used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called a. Absorption b. Elution

c. Titer d. Translocation

  1. The Donath-Landsteiner test is associated with a. CGD (cnronic granulomatous disease) b. PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria) c. PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglubinuria) d. PRV (polycythenia rubra vera)
  2. A cold agglutinatinin will usually have specificity for the a. D antigen b. e antigen c. I antigen d. K antigen
  3. Paroxysmal cold hemoglubinuria (PCH) is often associated with antibodies of which system a. MNS b. P c. Lewis d. Rh
  4. Forward grouping is a. Using known red cell antigens to detect unkown antibodies b. Using known serum antibodies to detect unknown antigens c. Using anti-A, B to confirm group O d. Using anti-A1 to detect subgroups
  5. Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances: a. Newborn infants b. Geriatric patients c. Patients undergoing chemotherapy d. All of the above
  6. A patient that forward groups as an AB but reverse groups as group B probably is a group A2B with a. Anti-A b. Anti-A c. Anti-B d. Anti-D
  7. The most dangerous antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at a. 4c b. 25c c. 32c d. 37c
  8. Antiglobulin reagent a. Is produced in laboratory animals b. Is produced in human beings c. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies

d. Antiglobulin serum has not reacted with the original red cells being tested

  1. Fresh serum (less than 2 days old) must be used for compatibility testing to preserve a. Chelating agents b. Sialic acid c. Complement d. Autoantibodies
  2. Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cells among many free cells. Which of the following is the most common reason for mixed field agglutination? a. Twin chimeras b. Transfused cells mingling with patient cells c. Weak subgroups of A or B d. Asntigen strength altered disease states
  3. The minor crossmatch a. Detects antibodies in donor serum that react with recipient cells b. Detect antibodies in recipient serum that react with donor cells c. Detects leukocytes antibodies in donor serum d. Detected leukocyte antibodies in recipient serum
  4. All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of a crossmatch a. Anti-Kidd b. Anti-Le(a) c. Anti-M d. Anti-P
  5. Which of the following antibodies is inactivated opr destroyed by enzyme treatment? a. Anti-JKa b. Anti-Fya c. Anti-D d. None of the above
  6. One of the eight units crossmatched is incompatible in the antiglobulin phase of testing. The most likely antibody is a. Anti-Kell b. Anti-Fya c. Antui-Jka d. Anti-cellano
  7. If a recipient is incompatible with only one donor, one should suspect a. An ABO grouping error b. A recipient antibody to a low incidence antigen c. A clerical error d. A incomplete antibody
  8. If a group O blood is crossmatched for a group B recipient a. The major crossmatch will be incompatible

b. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible c. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible d. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be compatible

  1. Transfusion of a Group A1 patient with the red cells of a group A2 donor will result in a. The patient’s producing anti –A b. The patient’s having a fatal hemoluytic transfusion reaction c. No reaction providing the unit otherwise compatible d. The opatient’s producing anti-A
  2. If a patient has anti-D in his serum, and is crossmatched with a D-negative donor a. The major crosssmatch will be incompatible b. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible c. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible
  3. Platelet concentrates are often used to treat patients with a. HDN b. Thrombocytopenia c. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia d. Multiple myeloma
  4. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not used to treat a. Haemophilia A b. Von Willebrand’s disease c. Haemophilia B d. Hypofibrinogenemia
  5. Red blood cells are the product of choice for a. Supplying deficient coagulation factors b. Acute massive blood loss c. Exchange transfusion d. Increasing oxygen carrying capacity
  6. Deglycerolyzed frozen red blood cells must be transfused within how many hours? a. 4 b. 21 c. 24 d. 72
  7. Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following except a. Anti-HLA antibodies b. Platelet antibodies c. Red cell antibodies d. White cell antibodies
  8. The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotyopes? a. AO b. BO c. OO
  1. If cells are positive when tested with anti-D, anti C and anti-e, and negative when tested with an anti-e and anti-c, what is the mostlikely genotype? a. R2R b. R1r c. R2r’ d. R1R
  2. If red blood cells give positive reactions when tested with an Rh, antirh’, anti-hr’, and anti-hr”, and a negative reaction with anti-rh”. Which of the following genotype is impossible? a. R1r b. R1R c. R1R d. R0r’
  3. Using the information given in the previousquestion, what is the most likely genotype? a. R1r b. R1R c. R1R d. R0r’
  4. Which is the most common of the Rh0(D) negative genotypes? a. cde/cde b. Cde/cde c. Cde/CdE d. cdE/cde
  5. when red cells are positive when tested with anti-c and anti-e and negative when tested with anti-D, anti-C and anti-E, what is the genotype? a. Rr b. R’r c. RoRo d. r’r’
  6. haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) casn occur when a. the infant lacks an antigen the mother possesses b. the mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses c. the mother possesses an antigen the father alcks d. none of the above
  7. what antibody is most likely to be involved in haemolytic disease of the newborn? a. Anti-C b. Anti-Lea c. Anti-M d. Anti-Jsa
  8. When severe HDN is due to an unidentified antibody a. No blood is acceptable for transfusion b. O negative cells with AB plasma should be used for transfusion c. The mother’s red cells maybe used for transfusion

d. None of the above

  1. Which of the following blood groups has not bee reported to cause HDN? a. Rh b. Kell c. P d. Duffy
  2. In a case of HDN, when the mother is group O and the baby is group A, red cells for an exchange transfusion should be what group? a. A b. B c. O d. AB
  3. In cases of ABO haemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother is usually which of these a. Group AB b. Group O c. RhO (D) negative d. A
  4. If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A2B, which would be impossible in the offspring? a. A b. A c. B d. A2B
  5. In the phenotype mating A2B X O, which of the following is possible in the offspring? a. A b. A2B c. O d. B
  6. In the phenotype mating O x O, which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a. A b. A2B c. B d. O
  7. An A1B mother and an A2O father could not produce which of the following genotypes? a. A1A b. A2B c. BO d. A1B
  8. If the mother is group O and the infant is group B, the infants blood group genotype is a. BB b. AO

d. 50

  1. A blood bank has 10 units of O Rh0 (D) positive blood from random donors. It should be easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with a. Anti-e b. Anti-c c. Anti-cellano d. Anti-Lea
  2. If a patient with anti-e needs a blood transfusion, approximately what percentage of donor blood tested will be compatible? a. 2% b. 30% c. 70% d. 98%
  3. Patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1. According to statistics, select the approximate number of compatible units: a. 1 of 4 units b. 1 of 10 units c. 2 of 3 units d. 3 of 4 units

Questions 123- 134 may have more than one correct answer

  1. A 56C water bath is commonly used for a. Crossmatching b. Preparing elautes c. Inactivating sera d. Thawing frozen cells
  2. Testing media for antigen antibody reactions include a. Isotonic saline b. LISS c. Albumin d. Enzymes
  3. Anti-A1 agglutinin a. Is found in group A1 patients b. Is occasionally found in A2 patients c. Is found in all A2B patients d. Is found in group B group O patients
  4. Weak agglutination with anti-A typing serum is to be expected with which blood group(S) a. A b. A1B c. A

d. AB

  1. Anti-A,B serum a. Is obtained from A1B individuals b. Is obtained from A2B individuals c. Is obtained from group O individuals d. Confirm group O individuals
  2. Rh antibodies a. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C b. Are frequently noted to be cold agglutinins c. Are acquired from transfusion or pregnancy d. Can cross the placenta
  3. Which of the following are naturally occurring a. Anti-P b. Anti-K c. Anti-Lea d. Ant-JKa e. Anti-N f. Anti-S
  4. The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype(s) a. A1B b. A3B c. BB d. AO e. BO
  5. The phenotype A1 can result from which of these genotypes? a. A1A b. A2A c. A1O d. A2O e. A1B
  6. In the very acute phase opf hepatitis, which of the following would be indicative of the onset of a viremic state? a. Positive HBsAg b. Positive HBeAg c. Positive anti-HBc d. Anti-HAV
  7. What is the expiration date (in days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate-phospate- dextrose-adenine (CPDA-1) a. 21 b. 24 c. 35 d. 40