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Project Management Module (IFMA FMP)
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2025 Version
Which attribute most accurately describes a project? - The correct answer is: Projects are finite. What is an example of how project managers apply sound management techniques? - The correct answer is: they break down a task further if it remains at the same percent completion despite reported progress. Which is an advantage of using a standardized project management model? - The correct answer is: The model is a framework that project managers can adapt to project specifics. In the project model, what do outputs from the Plan phase become? - The correct answer is: inputs to the Execute phase. A project will have a long payback period. What should the project be linked to thus increasing the chances the project will be approved? - The correct answer is: Strategic facility plans Which activity is set by policy at the start of a project? - The correct answer is: Estimating What should a facility manager do at the beginning of a routine project to achieve success? - The correct answer is: generate a shared understanding of the end purpose of a project. What principle is true about the steps involved when defining project success? - The correct answer is: Specifying nonessential parameters is as important as specifying essential ones. Which document may include details such as adjacency diagrams, space standards, and information on current and future staffing count for business units? - The correct answer is: Statement of requirements In what document would the project manager be formally listed? - The correct answer is: Project charter
Which is true about the elements in a project objectives statement? - The correct answer is: Schedule documentation only includes milestones for hard delivery dates. An organization gathers data on occupant space requirements, desired location, and desired cost per square meter (square foot). What other factors should be considered when listing site selection criteria?
- The correct answer is: Desired floor plan/stacking plan and desired amenities Which element is developed first? - The correct answer is: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Of the following terms related to a WBS, which statement is correct? - The correct answer is: A task is a function to be performed that is detailed enough for proposals to indicate cost, schedule, and readiness and completion criteria. In which scheduling methods are as many activities as possible concurrently performed? - The correct answer is: Waterfall model scheduling Which statement is true of communications management for an office relocation? - The correct answer is: Post-relocation orientation brochures can help employees find their way around. Which role helps ensure continued senior management/client support of major projects? - The correct answer is: Project champion Which statement is true of contract details? - The correct answer is: Non typical materials or installation methods should not be included in the main body of a contractor's proposal. Which pre-project actions reduce risk and increase the probability of project success? - The correct answer is: Pre-select contractors If an organization has narrowed the list of contractors submitting proposals but is still having trouble deciding between them, what could help? - The correct answer is: Bidder presentations
Development of the budget requires close integration with the project schedule because costs are allocated to the period in which the costs are incurred. Similarly, budget constraints can require changes to the project schedule such as completing a task more quickly to minimize financing costs. Budgets are produced after schedules. Estimates for costs are made during planning rather than waiting until later.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 5) Which scheduling methods are for activities NOT concurrently performed? - Traditional waterfall model scheduling Your answer is correct. In forward pass, backward pass, and critical pass scheduling, as many activities as possible are concurrently performed, constrained by resource availability and predecessors. The traditional waterfall model does not include these time-saving processes, and therefore it is rarely used for project scheduling.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 3) Which statement is true about the process steps used to build a project schedule? - Failure to agree on a duration estimate may indicate a need for further task division. Your answer is correct. Failure to come to agreement on an estimate may indicate the task needs to be further broken down. Dependencies are part of sequencing. Knowing the skill levels of personnel affects the length of time required for a task, so determining this is necessary. Sequencing is not performed during work breakdown structure creation. (Reference: 3 - 2 - 3) Which statement is true of communications management for an office relocation? - Post-relocation orientation brochures can help employees find their way around. Your answer is correct. Post-relocation orientation brochures are one type of post-relocation communications that can help prevent occupant dissatisfaction with a move. Relocation communications are important and should not be minimal. Another stakeholder group to communicate with is customers and suppliers. Employees pack the contents of their own workstations.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 7) Correct In what contract model does the owner act as the general contractor? - Multiple prime contracts Your answer is correct.
In multiple prime contracts, the owner acts as the general contractor and directly retains all needed subcontractors. The other models involve contracting with a contractor or firm who acts as a general contractor to get the work done.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 10 ) A project manager is planning a research project to determine a sustainability policy for purchases. Which techniques could help if the project manager is trying to sequence the project tasks and determine concurrent activities? - Network diagrams Your answer is correct. Network diagrams are methods of graphically illustrating the sequence of events and activities or tasks. The primary advantage of a network diagram is its ability to communicate simple dependencies and concurrent activities without unnecessary detail.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 3) A number of tasks for a project have significant cost uncertainty when the project management plan is being developed. In this case, what would be a best practice for ensuring activities have sufficient funding? - Create a contingency reserve for estimate variance. Your answer is correct. In this case, the best practice would be to create a contingency reserve, rather than padding or shorting task cost estimates. A contingency reserve can allocate funds for those activities that have unanticipated costs rather than building the cost into each uncertain activity.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 4) What is true of quality management? - If costs need to be reduced, quality management ensures that grade is reduced if approved as a scope change but quality is maintained. Your answer is correct. If costs need to be cut, quality management can ensure that the grade, not the quality, of materials or services is reduced in scope (i.e., simpler but has no known defects). The changes would still require approval by change control.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 6) Which statement reflects good practice when it comes to managing project communications? - Kickoff meetings are held each time persons join the project team. Your answer is correct. If persons join a project team at different points in a project, a kickoff meeting can be held to introduce these new team members to the purpose and goals of the project. (Reference: 3 - 2 - 7) What can reduce the risk of contract fraud and act as a checklist, for example ensuring each contract has an end date? - Standardized contract details Your answer is correct.
and milestones. They can also be expanded to show detail down to the level of the work packages.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 3) Which definition is correct? - A task is a function to be performed that is detailed enough for proposals to indicate cost, schedule, and readiness and completion criteria. Your answer is correct. A task is a unit of work that is sufficiently well defined so that, within the context of related tasks, readiness criteria, completion criteria, cost and schedule can all be determined. It is a function to be performed that always consumes time and may consume resources.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 2) What specifies that costs should be applied to a work package at the start of work, called front-end loading? - Project costing plan Your answer is correct. The project costing plan specifies how costs are applied. Costs are applied to a work package at the start of work, called front-end loading, at the end, called back-end loading, or are prorated. (Reference: 3 - 2 - 5) Correct 21 An organization gathers data on occupant space requirements, desired location, and desired cost per square meter (square foot). What other factors should be considered when creating site selection criteria? - Desired floor plan/stacking plan and desired amenities Your answer is correct. When conducting a site evaluation, factors addressed include data on occupant requirements, desired location, desired cost per square meter (square foot) including rent and operating expenses, etc., desired floor plan/stacking plan, and desired amenities. Test fits are generated for building evaluations, not site selection criteria. Schematic designs are not available for creating site selection criteria.(Reference: 3 - 1 -
Which statement is true of contract details? - Non-typical materials or installation methods should not be included in the main body of a contractor's proposal. Your answer is correct. Non-typical materials or installation methods should not be included in the main body of a contractor's proposal. If bidders are encouraged to suggest options such as alternate materials or methods, there should be a section for alternates following the base bid.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 11 )
What should NOT be in project documentation for the project team and contractors? - Location of remote workers Your answer is correct. Project managers need to know roles and responsibilities, release criteria, and availability for team members. Where remote team members plan to work is not relevant.(Reference: 3 - 2 - 8) When project managers determine the level of data to collect for monitoring and controlling project work, what information do they NOT need to verify? - Project work delays due to data collection are scheduled. Your answer is correct. Rationale: Data should be valid, timely, and cost effective. Cost effective also means that data collection should not delay project work.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) Which is a valid change control policy? - Project managers decide the best point in a project to implement approved actions/changes. Your answer is correct. Project managers decide the best point in a project to implement approved actions/changes. For example, they could delay implementation of approved actions or changes if it increases the ability to integrate the change into routine work. Customers are generally not recommended as final change approvers because they may not understand the impact of a change on scope. Value engineering is frequently applied during construction or operations phases but is ideally implemented sooner. Change orders are by definition requests to change project scope.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) What should project managers submit when wanting to revise the project management plan to make it feasible given the current situation? - change order. Your answer is correct. Rationale: Suggested change orders are recommendations to change the project management plan to make it feasible given the current situation.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) Which is true of the Execute, Monitor and Control phases of the project model? - These phases are often concurrently or iteratively performed. Your answer is correct.
If an organization has narrowed the list of contractors submitting proposals but is still having trouble deciding between them, what might help? - Bidder presentations Your answer is correct. Once proposals are received, organizations can use bidder presentations to help decide between proposals. A bidder presentation is a sales presentation that details the bidder's technical and management capabilities.(Reference: 4 - 1 - 3) A project manager wants to increase control and reduce risk for a project that will begin soon. What actions should the project manager take? - Increase reporting frequency by installing reporting technology used by a different department. Your answer is correct. Increasing the frequency of reports increases the number of control points and reduces project risk. Reporting technology includes automation that can reduce the time required for reporting. Because the answer states that this technology is already in use in a different department, it may be feasible to get it installed and add team members who are already trained in its use. Hiring an analyst could increase the quality but not necessarily the frequency of reports.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) What is an example of an effective preventive action that a project manager could take to improve project team management? - Offer paid certification training as a team reward prior to announcing a decision to base pay grades in part on certification. Your answer is correct. Linking certification as a reward for accomplishing team goals provides a motivating factor and anticipates complaints that may have occurred if the news about certification and pay grade been announced without first providing a means of achieving this goal. The other options are not examples of preventive actions.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) If a decision is made to update the schedule in the project management plan, which is given priority? - Changes affecting the critical path Your answer is correct. Rationale: Changes that affect the critical path will change the final end date of the project, so these are given special emphasis. Changes that alter a project's purpose should not be allowed.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) Which statement best describes cost control? - It is a line-item level activity that often requires difficult choices. Your answer is correct.
Cost control is a line-item activity that may require making difficult choices such as removing features or increasing the budget. Cost control is detail level activity and is not performed only at milestones. Cost control is governed by change control.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) What is auditing the emergency change control process to ensure it is being used properly an example of? - Quality assurance Your answer is correct. Auditing the emergency change control process is a process-oriented quality assurance audit because it verifies the right tasks are being done. Quality assurance is a process-oriented set of tools and techniques to monitor and control a project's processes with a goal of assuring that the project will meet its objectives.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) Which is true of change control? - A standardized change communications process is the key to avoiding an emergency atmosphere for enacting changes. Your answer is correct. The change order process includes a standardized way to communicate changes to affected parties so that the changes can be understood and incorporated into routine work.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) What process is verifying the scope primarily part of? - deliverable and task acceptance. Your answer is correct. Verifying the scope is a deliverable and task acceptance process that occurs once work is completed on a project or a phase of the project. The other options are parts of the control scope process.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) Which is a constructive use of rewards and recognition in project team management? - Preferring team rewards over individual rewards. Your answer is correct. Team rewards are preferred over individual rewards because team rewards foster team cohesiveness.(Reference: 4 - 2 - 2) A facility management (FM) organization is searching for a general contractor for a capital construction project. What would allow the project manager to see which contractor has the lowest price on carpeting or tile work? - Standardized bid proposal form Your answer is correct.
What is generally true of evaluating project outcomes? - Project managers investigate the root causes of success as much as of failures. Your answer is correct. Evaluating project outcomes typically includes conducting an evaluation to determine the success or failure of the project as well as the root causes of the success/failure and the lessons learned.(Reference: 5 - 2 - 2) Which is true about documentation for project closure? - Documentation may include operations and maintenance manuals. Your answer is correct. Product documentation is produced when closing projects, including operations and maintenance manuals. Project closure documentation (not product documentation) formally ends a project. Incomplete deliverables could be accepted if a project or contract is terminated early. If a budget limit is not part of a deliverable's acceptance criteria, it is not a valid reason for rejecting a deliverable.(Reference: 5 - 2 - 2) If final deliverables from contractors are rejected, what is the proper method of handling the situation? - Keep the contract open and provide a letter indicating the unmet criteria and required actions. Your answer is correct. A written list of rejected deliverables is provided to contractors with reference to the unmet criteria in the contract and the contractually required corrective actions or defect repairs. Once the contractor completes the repairs, the deliverables are validated by quality assurance. Unless contracts are terminated, contracts remain open until all deliverables have been accepted and repairs have been validated.(Reference: 5 - 1 - 3) What is developed to review a final deliverable from an entire system perspective? - Checklist reviews Your answer is correct. Checklist reviews for final deliverables are a quality control tool developed to review a final deliverable from an entire system perspective. They are a quality control, not a quality assurance, test. A punch list/snagging list walkthrough is a detailed review rather than a big picture overview. (Reference: 5 - 1 - 3) Once a building is commissioned, how long does a commissioning authority continue to monitor the facility? - The commissioning authority continues to monitor the facility during the warranty period and possibly for an extended operations and maintenance period.(Reference: 5 - 1 - 3)
What is the purpose of retainage? - To ensure no liens remain on project work at project closure Your answer is correct. The purpose of retainage or retention is to ensure that the general contractor pays all subcontractors so that the project is free from all liens at completion.(Reference: 5 - 1 - 3) Which is true of the contract closure process? - Early contract termination can be accomplished by presenting evidence of noncompliance by the other party, but the evidence may require legal review. Your answer is correct. Terminating contracts prior to their completion can be done by exercising clauses in the contract that show default or noncompliance by one party. Early termination may require legal review and presentation of legal grounds for contract termination. The organization may be legally required to settle with the contractor for monetary expenses already incurred.(Reference: 5 - 2 - 2) Which is a management task as opposed to an administrative task? - Assessing the contractor's performance Your answer is correct. Assessing a contractor's performance is a management task as it requires expert judgment. (Reference: 5 - 2 - 2)
