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PSY 4406 MODULE 1 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS
When is a cumulative graph preferred? - answer When the differences between measurements are small
Why would we measure duration over frequency? - answer Some behaviours duration is more significant than its frequency
What is a stimulus control? - answer The correlation between stimulus and response
What is the the Assessment of Basic Learning Abilities test? - answer The ABLA Measures the ability of intellectually disabled individuals to learn six stimulus discrimination levels...
Level one: imitation
Level two: position discrimination
Level three: visual discrimination
Level four: visual match to Sample
Level five: auditory discrimination
Level six: auditory visual combine discrimination
How long does testing continue on each level of the ABLA - answer Either eight consecutive passes or fails
What is continuous recording - answer Continuous recording is where an assessor records every instance of a behaviour in a given time period
What is interval recording - answer When behaviour is logged as either occurring or not occurring over set time intervals within a larger time period i.e. every 10 seconds for 30 minutes
What is the difference between partial interval recording and whole interval recording? - answer Partial interval recording is concerned with whether a behaviour occurs at all during a time period. whole interval recording is concerned with whether a behaviour occurs during the whole period
Explain time sampling recording - answer When it is impractical to record subject continually throughout the course of entire day, it is easier to record a subject for small durations at regular intervals. For example, for 15 seconds once per hour every hour.
Explain Momentary Time Sampling - answer When the presence or absence of the behaviour is recorded at specific and exact time intervals
What are three common sources of errors that can affect the accuracy of observations?
- answer Vague response definitions, situational difficulties such as subtlety of behaviour or distractions, and poor training.
Why do observers conduct inter-observer reliability estimates? - answer Because factors such as training, response definitions, distractions and subtlety of behaviour may all impact on an observer's assessment of a behaviour.
What does an inter-observer reliability estimate measure? - answer The percentage of mutually agreed upon observations.
What is the difference between an oppressive and unobtrusive observation? - answer And obtrusive observation will alter the recorded behaviour, an unobtrusive observation will not alter it.
What are potential downsides to both obtrusive and unobtrusive measurements? - answer Obtrusive: may not get measurements which accurately reflect the true expression of behaviour in a natural setting
Unobtrusive: may pose ethical issues concerned with consent of measurement
Why would an inter-observers agree to measure or not to measure blank observations? - answer If the behaviour is not frequent, then recording agreed-upon blank measurements in the IOR figure will greatly inflate the number of agreed-upon observations which may be misleading. However, blank observations may be worth recording when observers are concerned with decreasing a behaviour.
List three important events that supported the rise of evidence based medicine. - answer - 1910 Alexander Flexner writing about physician training practices
- 1948, British medical Journal, publication of first RCT
- 1960s, establishment of the FDA plus double blind RCT
How did Sacket define EBM? - answer Integrating the best available research with clinical expertise and patient values to make the best possible decisions regarding healthcare
How did the APA's task force define an EST? - answer - To experimental between groups
What does qualitative research offer in the context of single subject study designs? - answer A better understanding of what a particular score means to an individual in relation to their specific circumstances
What is the main difference in approach between EBT and EBP approaches - answer EBT requires the presence of RCT's to determine the potential worth of a treatment, while EBP take a broader perspective about what constitutes valid research.
How do EBP and EBT conceptualise the role of the clinician in therapy? - answer EBP sees a larger role for the clinician to exercise their own best judgement regarding the use of treatments in varying contexts.
EBT sees the role of the clinician as being minimised in respect to a more manualised form of treatment application.
Meta-analytic studies have been used to analyse and summarise the findings from a wide range of studies examining treatment efficacy. What is a potential downside? - answer These kinds of analysis are still prone to biases including study selection bias and publication bias.
What crucial treatment factor does EBT failed to account for? - answer The effects of the therapeutic alliance
What evidence is there to support the notion that a more collaborative approach between client and therapist results in better client outcomes? - answer Smith, Domenech Rodr í guez, and Bernal (2011) found that collaboration resulted in moderately more effective treatments for culturally diverse communities and were correlated with lower rates of client drop out.
In what kind of scenario would a manualised treatment for depression not be adequate for treating the depression? - answer If the clients depression is related to stressors stemming from their relationship or employment status, for example. In this case treatments could be tailored to address these specifically rather than the symptoms of depression they are causing.
What is the dodo bird verdict? - answer When comparing the efficacy of one form of therapy to the efficacy of another, the typical result is that the competing therapies are found to work about equally well.
What percentage of total treatment effect does Walpole attribute to both general and specific psychotherapeutic techniques? - answer 13%
How much the variance in treatment outcomes can be attributed to specific treatment factors? - answer 1%
What client qualities have an affect on therapeutic outcomes and what is the percentage that they contribute to the variance of change? - answer - clients strengths, struggles, motivations, distress, supportive elements in the environment and chance events
In treatment, what percentage of the overall variance is attributable to therapist affects and what percentage of treatment fracture is attributable to therapist effects. - answer - between 6% and 9% of overall variance
- between 46% and 69% of treatment variance
What percentage of overall variance as well as treatment variance is attributable to alliance effects? - answer - overall, alliance effects account for 5 to 7% of variance in the outcome
- within treatment effects, 38 to 54% of the variance is attributable to alliance effects.
How do you different treatment models achieve their effects? - answer Through the activation of placebo, hope and expectancy on the part of the client, in concert with the therapists belief in the treatment administered.
What are the four levels of evidence and their subsections as defined by the National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) - answer 1. Meta-analysis or systemic review of level 2 studies that include a quantitative analysis
- A double blind RCT from an appropriate population sample
3.1. Pseudo-randomised controlled trial (I.e alternate allocation)
3.2. A comparative study (I.e cohort, case-control, non-randomised trial)
3.3. Comparative study without concurrent control (historical control)
- Case series with pretest/posttest outcomes
What else must be considered when making determinations regarding treatment recommendations? - answer The quality, relevance and strength of the evidence available
What is the difference between a meta-analysis and a systematic review? - answer Meta-analysis is a formal quantitative study designed to make a determination about the finding of a body of research.
A system review is a literature a review that is generally focused on a particular question. It evaluates and synthesises relevant high quality evidence that is pertinent to the question.
