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PTCB PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% CORRECT
1. Knowing which of the following can best assist a technician in the preven- tion
of data entry errors?
A. Names of medications
B. Insurance co-payments
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Physician contact information: A. Names of medications
2. Which of the following injectable drugs would be stored in refrigerator?
A. Clindamycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Calcitonin-salmon: D. Calcitonin-salmon
3. The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if ap-
proved by the third-party payer is called:
A. claims reconciliation
B. capitation payment
C. prior authorization
D. claims adjudication: C. prior authorization
4. For a medication to be within the 5% margin of error permitted by the USP, the
minimum amount that can be weighed on a Class A prescription balance is:
A. 6 mg
B. 12 mg
C. 120 mg
D. 120 g: C. 120 mg
5. What is the percentage concentration of a solution that contains 500 mg/
mL? A. 0.5% B. 1%
C. 5%
D. 10%: B. 1%
6. A pharmacy technician receives an order for Lortab 5/500 mg tablets every 4 to
6 hours p.r.n. No refill information is provided. The technician should
D. Tetracycline: A. Ibuprofen
11. POS computer systems help the pharmacy to determine the patient's:
A. diagnosis
B. co-payment
C. drug allergies
D. prescription history: B. co-payment
12. What volume, in milliliters, of a drug for injection 250 mg/10 mL should be
used to fill an order for 15 mg? A. 0. B. 6 C. 10 D. 16.6: A. 0.
13. In the absence of stability information, water-containing formulations
(prepared for ingredients in solid form) should be assigned by a beyond-use date that is:
A. the same as the expiration date listed on the product
B. no later than 30 days
C. no later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature
D. no later than 25% of the time remaining until the product's expiration
date: C. no later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature
14. According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), abbrevi-
ations used during prescription writing:
A. are no longer acceptable
B. improve entry time
C. are prone to errors
D. facilitate the prescriber: C. are prone to errors
15. Durable medical equipment may be reimbursable to the pharmacy under
Medicare Part:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D: B. B
A. Taking the correct number of tablets at correct times
B. Request for refill at the appropriate time
C. Complaints of unpleasant taste or side effects of the drug
D. Clear understanding of why the prescription was given: C. Complaints of
unpleasant taste or side effects of the drug
17. Concerning needle recapping, which of the following is correct?
A. Used insulin needles are small enough that they can be disposed of in
regular garbage
B. Used immunization needles should be recapped before being placed in the
sharps container
C. Used immunization needles should never be recapped
D. Used insulin needles are small enough that they can safely be recapped
before being placed in a sharps container: C. Used immunization needles should never be recapped
18. A pharmacy technician must administer 1000 mL of TPN solution at 75
mL/hr. If the set delivers 20 gtt/mL, the flow rate in gtt/min will be:
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35: B. 25
19. OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to
protect healthcare workers from which of the following infectious diseases?
A. Influenza
B. Pneumonia
C. C-difficile
D. Hepatitis B: D. Hepatitis B
20. An outpatient prescription requires which of the following?
A. Medication lot number
B. Pharmacy address and phone number
C. Physician's phone number and address
D. Medical conditions: C. Physician's phone number and address
21. Which of the following drugs is the generic for Coumadin?
A. Ticlopidine
A. Take with food
B. May cause urine discoloration
C. Shake well
D. May cause drowsiness: C. Shake well
27. The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third-party claim is a:
A. person code
B. BIN
C. group number
D. member nubmber: B. BIN
28. The most appropriate container size, in ounces, for dispensing 240 mL of
liquid medication is:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8: D. 8
29. If a toxic or caustic material comes in contact with the skin or eyes, the
immediate response is to:
A. lie down and elevate the affected area
B. call 911 and place an ice bag on the affected area until medical personnel
arrive
C. wash the area thoroughly with an antibacterial soap and warm water
D. flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water: D. flush the affected
area with large volumes of cold water
30. A physician order phenobarbital elixir 60 mg for a patient. The drug is
available in a 20 mg/5 mL concentration. How many teaspoonfuls should be given for each dose?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4: C. 3
31. Which of the following sedative hypnotics is a benzodiazepine?
A. Zolpidem
32. Which of the following products or services does OBRA require pharma- cists
to offer to Medicade patitents?
A. Package inserts
B. Discount prices
C. Counseling
D. Delivery: C. Counseling
33. To avoid exceeding the 24-hour acetaminophen does limit of 4 g, patients
taking Darvocet-N 100 mg/650 mg should be cautioned not to take more than how many tablets daily?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10: B. 6
34. The form used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances is:
A. DEA 106
B. DEA 222
C. FDA 356
D. FDA 766: A. DEA 106
35. How many bottles of humulin R insulin would be dispensed for a 90 day
supply if the prescription states "inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime"?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5: C. 3
36. A patient wants to transfer a prescription from the originating pharmacy to
another pharmacy. The pharmacy technician should:
A. call the receiving pharmacy and provide the necessary information to
another pharmacist
B. inform the patient that it is illegal to transfer prescriptions
C. accommodate the patient and process the transfer as expeditiously as
possible
A. 0.45%
B. 0.9%
C. 9.0%
D. 23.4%: B. 0.9%
42. Which of the following is the most important information to collect for a
patient's pharmacy profile?
A. Current marital status
B. Current employment status
C. Herbal and dietary supplements used by the patient
D. Office equipment and supplies used by the patient: C. Herbal and dietary
supplements used by the patient
43. Which of the following occurred when a specialty pharmacy dispensed
Lupron Depot-Ped for Lupron Depot-3 Month injection for an adult patient?
A. Look-alike/sound-alike mistake
B. Wholesaler error
C. Prescribing issue
D. Bar code validation error: A. Look-alike/sound-alike mistake
44. A prescription reads, "percodan tablets, dispense 120, take 1 tablet by
mouth every 6 hours as needed for back pain." The technician should:
A. refer the patient to another pharmacy
B. refuse to fill the prescription and return it to the patient
C. call the regional DEA office to report a forged prescription
D. fill the prescription as written: D. fill the prescription as written
45. When is it necessary to recap a needle, which of the following is correct?
A. needles should never be recapped under any circumstances
B. two hands should be used for recapping needles to ensure stability
C. the "one-hand scoop" method of recapping is safer than using two hands
D. all used needles should be recapped before being placed in a sharps
container: C. the "one-hand scoop" method of recapping is safer than using two hands
46. How much dextrose, in grams, is contained in 1000 mL of D10W?
A. 1
47. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Diltiazem
B. Atenolol
C. Ramipril
D. Nitroglycerin: A. Diltiazem
48. The label of a medication that has been repackaged should include the:
A. prescriber's name
B. generic name(s)
C. wholesaler's name
D. patient's name: B. generic name(s)
49. In The Orange Book, the letter "AB" rating indicates that products:
A. are considered bioequivalent
B. required clinical trials to determine the preferred route of administration
C. required clinical trials to determine the efficacy of the drug
D. are considered therapeutically nonequivalent: A. are considered bioequiva- lent
50. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for insulin with the sig
reading "52 units q.a.m. and 48 units q.p.m." As the prescription is entered into the patient's profile, the technician notices that the patient may not be taking medications as directed, and the compliance may be an issue. What should the technician do?
A. Show the information to the pharmacist for consultation with the patient
B. Omit alerting the pharmacist to the patient's possible misuse of medica- tion
C. Assume that the patient and his or her physician have discussed this
situation
D. Consult with the patient about proper dosing of his or her medication: A. Show
the information to the pharmacist for consultation with the patient
51. When a patient is required to go to a network healthcare provider, the
patient is insured through:
A. a preferred-provider organization
B. workers' compensation
C. a pharmacy benefit manager
D. a health maintenance organization: D. a health maintenance organization
52. The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert for a
medication can also be found in:
A. the Physician's Desk Reference
B. The Red Book
C. The Orange Book
D. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy: A. the Physician's Desk
Reference
53. Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains
sumatriptan and which other medication?
A. Naproxen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Diclofenac: A. Naproxen
54. The last two digits of an NDC number indicate:
A. manufacturer
B. active ingredient
C. package size
D. expiration date: C. package size
55. A package insert contains instructions to store the medication at 10
degrees celsius. What is the temperature in degrees fahrenheit?
A. 33
B. 37
C. 42
D. 50: D. 50
56. Coordination of benefits is use when a patient has:
A. no insurance
B. only one insurance plan
C. primary and secondary insurance
