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PWH Exam Questions And Answers Graded A+, Exams of Advanced Education

PWH Exam Questions And Answers Graded A+

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/21/2025

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PWH Exam Questions And Answers Graded A+
Define term labour - Answer Labour that begins at any gestational age >37 weeks
What are the definitions of each trimester? - Answer T1: 1-14 weeks
T2: 14-28 weeks
T3: 28-42 weeks
What are the risks when choosing VBAC? - Answer - 0.5% risk of uterine rupture -- if this
occurs, 1 in 7 chance of adverse neonatal outcome, 0.1% risk of hysterectomy, 0.01% risk
of maternal mortality
What is the success rate of a VBAC? - Answer High-- 77%
What are the seven layers that need dissecting during a caesarean? - Answer 1. Skin
2. Fat
3. Fascia
4. Rectus abdominis
5. Peritoneum
6. Bladder flap
7. Uterus
List the skin changes that occur during pregnancy - Answer - Increased pigmentation due
to increased MSH
- Increased elasticity and stretching
- Palmar erythema and Chloasma
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PWH Exam Questions And Answers Graded A+

Define term labour - Answer Labour that begins at any gestational age >37 weeks What are the definitions of each trimester? - Answer T1: 1-14 weeks T2: 14-28 weeksT3: 28-42 weeks

What are the risks when choosing VBAC? - Answer - 0.5% risk of uterine rupture -- if thisoccurs, 1 in 7 chance of adverse neonatal outcome, 0.1% risk of hysterectomy, 0.01% risk of maternal mortality What is the success rate of a VBAC? - Answer High-- 77% What are the seven layers that need dissecting during a caesarean? - Answer 1. Skin2. Fat

  1. Fascia4. Rectus abdominis
  2. Peritoneum6. Bladder flap
  3. Uterus List the skin changes that occur during pregnancy - Answer - Increased pigmentation dueto increased MSH
  • Increased elasticity and stretching
  • Palmar erythema and Chloasma

List the cardiovascular and haematological changes that occur during pregnancy -Answer - Decreased TPR (prog)

  • Decreased SV
  • Decreased VR (compression)- Decreased BP
  • Increased HR- Increased CO
  • Increased BV- Increased EPO-- Increased RBC (still physiological anaemia)
  • Decreased albumin concentration (increased BV)-- decreased calcium -- hypercoaguable- Increased platelets
  • Increased leukocytes (but decreased action) List the respiratory changes that occur during pregnancy - Answer - Increased BMR--increased O2 demand
  • Increased minute ventilation -- blow off more CO2 -- respiratory alkalosis (increased RR)
  • Decreased lung capacity (TLC, RV, FRC)-- space occupying foetus (diaphragm movesup)
  • Relaxed chest wall (prog) List the renal changes that occur during pregnancy - Answer - Increased GFR due toincreased BV -- increased creatinine excretion
  • Dilation of renal pelvic (prog) -- urinary stasis-- increased UTI and progression topyelonephritis

List the gastro changes that occur during pregnancy - Answer - Relaxed LES (prog) andincreased intra-abdominal pressure -- GORD

  • Prog -- decreased motilin-- constipation and cholestasis

What are the associated risks with the different nuchal thicknesses? - Answer 3mm= 3xrisk 4mm= 16x risk5mm= 28x risk 6mm= 36x risk What is the false positive rate with nuchal translucency screening? - Answer 5% Can nuchal translucency be used to diagnose Trisomy 21? - Answer No-- it is a screeningtest

When is NIPT performed? - Answer After 10 weeks What is the NIPT looking at? - Answer Non-cellular foetal DNA from the placenta that ispresent in the maternal circulation

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the NIPT? - Answer 99.5% sensitive, 99.8%specific

What are the diagnostic tests for Trisomy 21? - Answer CVS and Amniocentesis Compare CVS and amniocentesis - Answer CVS-- sample of chorionic villi, done at 10-12weeks, less accurate, 1% chance of miscarriage Amnio-- sample of amniotic fluid which contains foetal DNA, done at 14 weeks, moreaccurate, 0.5% chance of miscarriage

What are the features of hyperemesis gravidum? - Answer - 5% weight loss- Dehydration

  • Electrolyte imbalance- Ketonuria
  • Hospital admission What are some complications that can occur due to hyperemesis gravidum? - Answer -Mallory Weiss tear
  • Wernicke's encephalopathy (vit B6 deficiency)
  • Pontine demyelination if hydrated too quickly- IUGR

What are some risk factors for HG? - Answer - Multiple gestations

  • Previous HG
  • Previous eating disorders- IBS
  • GORD- Mood disturbances
  • Obesity- younger women

How is HG managed? - Answer - IV fluids and pyridoxine (vit B6) and small meals

  • Then can give anti-emetics: doxylamine (H1 ant) + ranitidine (H2 ant) or Rabeprazole(PPI)
  • Second line anti-emtics may include prochlorperazine, promethazine, metoclopramideetc

What investigations may be done during a booking in appointment? - Answer - Rubella,Varicella, Syphilis, Hep B/C, HIV

  • Urinalysis- FBC

foetus or foetuses considered high risk2. Head circumference deviatiing from growth curve

  1. Ventriculomegaly detected earlier What is Naegele's rule? - Answer 1st day of LMP + 1 year + 7 days - 3 months What CRL measurements correspond to what GAs? - Answer <9mm = 6 weeks 10-15mm = 7 weeks>16mm = determine via CRL

What are the 8 things assessed during the morphology scan? - Answer 1. Number ofbabies

  1. Placenta and umbilical cord position3. Cervix patency
  2. Amniotic fluid index5. Foetal biometry
  3. Foetal abnormalities7. Gender of baby if desired
  4. GA confirmation Describe Leopold's manoeuvres - Answer 1. Feel fundus for height, shape, consistency
  5. feel sides for position of baby's back3. Feel inlet to determine position of baby
  6. Feel sides of inlet to determine attitude and degree of extension Why is folic acid important during pregnancy? - Answer It is a co-enzyme in a methylationreaction required for DNA synthesis:
  • Supports maternal blood expansion
  • Supports maternal tissue growth- Supports foetal tissue growth, particularly Neural tube growth and closure

What levels of folic acid are recommended? - Answer 0.5mg for low risk5mg for high risk

List medications that are contra-indicated during pregnancy and why - Answer - ACEinhibitors-- Renal defects, IUGR

  • Carbamazepine-- NTDs
  • Chloramphenicol-- circulatory collapse- Lithium-- Ebstein's cardiac anomaly
  • Misoprostol-- Miscarriage
  • NSAIDs-- premature DA closure- Phenytoin-- Congenital anomalies
  • Retinoids-- CNS, craniofacial, cardiac, thyroid- Sulpha drugs-- anti-folate actions
  • Antibiotics: Tetracycline (bone), Aminoglycosides (renal, ear), Fluconazole (teratogenic)- Valproate-- NTD
  • Warfarin-- miscarriage, head issues- Opioids-- NAS and congenital issues
  • Leflunomide-- CATEGORY X What are the categories of drugs in pregnancy - Answer A- ok B- not sureC- suspected risk C- BadX- DONT GIVE

What are the TORCHS infections? - Answer ToxoplasmosisOther Rubella CMVHerpes Simplex Syphilis What does congenital Toxoplasmosis cause? - Answer - Choriorentinitis- Hydrocephaly

  • Intracranial calcification- Mitral regurgitation
  • Microcephaly What happens in congenital rubella syndrome? - Answer - Hearing loss
  • Cataracts- CV lesions
  • Mitral regurgitation- IUGR
  • Hepatitis- CNS defects
  • Osseous changes 30% mortality rate What does congenital CMV infection cause? - Answer CNS involvement causing mentalretardation, cerebral calcification, microcephaly, deafness, Chorioretinitis

What can congenital herpes cause? - Answer - Disseminated herpes- 20%

  • CNS sequelae as herpes encephalitis - 35%or a self-limited infection

What is the treatment for herpes simplex in pregnancy? - Answer Acyclovir forsymptomatic women or as suppressive therapy at 36weeks if there are active genital lesions How can foetal morbidity due to toxoplasmosis be reduced? - Answer Spiramycin What does varicella zoster cause in a foetus? - Answer Congenital varicella syndrome--limb aplasia, chorioretinitis, cataracts, cutaneous scars, cortical atrophy, IUGR, hydrops, pre-term labour How can congeintal varicella be reduced? - Answer Varicella zoster Ig if mother exposed What are the risk factors for neonatal GBS disease? - Answer - Maternal intrapartum GBScolonisation during pregnancy

  • Pervious infant with invasive GBS disease
  • Prolonged ROM (>18 hours)- Maternal fever >38 degrees

How is a GBS positive woman addressed during labour? - Answer IV ampicillin begun atstart of labour and every 6 hours following, unless maternal fever, then give broad spectrum ABx cover What does listeria cause in a foetus? - Answer - Preterm birth- Miscarriage

  • Granulomatosis infantiseptica-- severe systemic infection with disseminated abscesses,Respiratory distress, meningitis

Monoamniotic-- one amniotic sacDichorionic-- two placentas Diamniotic-- two amniotic sacs How are the different types of twins diagnosed? - Answer US:

  • Lambda sign= thick placental base-- dichorionic- T sign-- thin placental base-- monochorionic

What gestational age do you give tocolytics and steroids if risk of brith in 7 days is high?- Answer Between 24 and 34

What percentage of pregnancies are complicated by diabetes? - Answer 2-4%, with 0.3%being from pre-existing diabetes, and 2-3% by gestational

What are the risk factors for GDM? - Answer - Ethnicity- AMA

  • FHx- Previous GDM
  • Previous macrosomic baby- Maternal obesity
  • Polyhydramnios- Twins
  • PCOS What percentage of women with DM will require insulin during pregnancy? - Answer10-20% -- oral hypoglycaemics may be teratogenic

What are some of the complications that may arise due to diabetes during pregnancy? -Answer MATERNAL:

  • diabetes later in life- injury due to macrosomia
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • PolyhydramniosFOETAL:
  • Macrosmia- Shoulder dystocia
  • Hypoglycaemia- RDS
  • Hyperbilirubineamia- Polycythemia
  • Still birth
  • Congenital malformations (3x higher) What percentage of pregnancy women are overweight or obese? - Answer 50% What happens to a pregnant woman's blood pressure throughout pregnancy? - AnswerFalls due to decreased TPR until about weeks 20-22 when it increases again as blood volume increases Define gestational hypertension - Answer Blood pressure > 140/90 which developsAFTER 20 weeks of pregnancy and resolves before 12 weeks postpartum

If present before 20 weeks, it is considered chronic What is pre-eclampsia? - Answer Hypertension plus involvement of other organ systems,mainly renal showing proteinuria, increased creatinine, oliguria

What percentage of pregnancies are complicated by pre-eclampsia? - Answer 3-5%

How common is HELLP syndrome? - Answer 1-2 in 1000 How does HELLP syndrome present? - Answer RUQ or epigastric pain, nausea, vomitingmalaise

How is HELLP syndrome managed? - Answer BP control, delivery plan and managementof low platelets -- 50% of women will require blood products

What is isoimmunisation? - Answer When foetal RBC components enter the maternalcirculation, stimulating the maternal immune system to produce antibodies against the foetal cells What may cause isoimmunisation in pregnancy? - Answer - Terminations

  • Ectopics- Miscarriages
  • Procedures including amnios, CVS, ECV- Any APH
  • Placental abruption- Labour and delivery
  • Trauma What tests are done to determine if isoimmunisation will occur or has occured? - Answer- Indirect Coombs done on mother initially to determine blood group and antibody presence
  • Lleihauer-Betke test done to determine extent of foetal-maternal haemorrhage and see ifmore anti-D is required
  • MCA doppler done to determine extent of foetal anaemia- US to look for features of hydrops
  • Direct Coombs test done on babies with prolonged jaundice to look for hameolysis

What is hydrops fetalis? - Answer Oedema in more than 2 compartments of the foetusdue to congestive heart failure secondary to anaemia

What is erythroblastosis fetalis? - Answer Moderate to severe immune-mediatedhaemolytic anaemia

What is the prophylaxis for isoimmunisation? - Answer Anti-D: an immunoglobulinagainst Rh antigens, which binds the Rh antigens of the foetal cells in maternal circulation to prevent the maternal immune system from mounting a response When is anti-D administered? - Answer - Routinely at 28 weeks

  • Within 72 hors of birth of a Rh positive baby- With any invasive procedure during pregnancy
  • Management of ectopic, miscarriage, termination- Any APH (often quantified first via Lleihaur Betke test)
  • Trauma How is isoimmunisation treated? - Answer PUBS (chordocentesis) and intrauterinetransfusion-- Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling done to sample foetal blood, then intrauterine transfusion
  • 1-5% loss rate What are the affects of alcohol on a baby? - Answer - FASD spectrum: CNS, craniofacial
  • Short term: CNS hyperexcitability, GI symptoms, irritability, seizures, NAS- Long term: FASD, variable muscle tone, sleeping/ feeding difficulties, increased SIDS

What are the affects of Nicotine on a baby? - Answer - Placental abruption, IUGR,premature birth

  • Buprenorphine further decreases adverse neonatal effects, but is more expensive andhas less maternal compliance, plus effect of buprenorphine in breastmilk hasn't been established yet Define adequate uterine activity - Answer 3-5 strong contractions in 10 minutes What is the smallest presenting diameter? - Answer suboccipito-bregmatic = vertex =9.5cm

What are the two deflexed vertex diameters? - Answer Occipitofrontal= 11cmOccipitomental = 13 cm

Define attitude of foetus - Answer Degree of flexion or extension of head Define lie of the foetus - Answer Way the long axis of the foetus is sitting in relation to thelong axis of the uterus-- longitudinal, transverse, oblique

Define presentation of the foetus - Answer The pole of the foetus which is overlying thepelvic inlet-- cephalic, breech, shoulder

Define position of foetus - Answer The position of the baby's occiput in relation to thematernal pubic symphysis-- OA, OP, OT

What is the most common position of the foetus? - Answer OA (or within 45 degrees ofOA)

Define station - Answer Location of presenting part in birth canal in relation to ischialspines

Define engagement - Answer When the widest part fo the foetal diameter has entered thepelvic inlet

What is the most common shape of the female pelvis? - Answer gynaecoid What are the 4 shapes of the pelvis? - Answer GynacoidAndroid PlatypelloidAnthropoid

What is interventions can be done for birth to still be considered 'normal'? - Answer -Augmentation or ARM

  • Entonox
  • Opioids
  • electronic foetal monitoring- Active management of third stage

What interventions make birth no longer 'normal'? - Answer - Induction of labour

  • Epidural or spinal- General anaesthetic
  • Forceps or vacuum- Caesarean
  • Episiotomy What are the 7 cardinal movements of labour? - Answer 1. Engagement
  1. Descent3. Flexion
  2. Internal rotation5. Extension