Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

Solved Nursing Exam Questions: Comprehensive Review for Nurses, Exams of Nursing

A solved question paper for nurses, covering various nursing practice areas. Questions address differentiating hysterical from epileptic fits, Alzheimer's features, operant conditioning, sterilization, infant vomiting complications, risks for neonates of diabetic mothers, and RNTCP case finding. Further topics include blindness causes in India, pregnancy contraindications, Copper-T side effects, suicide risk nursing priorities, burn patient fluid assessment, IV drip blood sources, GFR factors, Bell's palsy, fractures, esophageal conditions, pancreatitis, SLE, chest tube insertion, rheumatic heart disease, lumbar puncture contraindications, renal carcinoma, placental weight, polyhydramnios, postpartum hemorrhage, breech presentation, child development, APGAR scores, newborn care, vaccine administration, Kramers rule, sunset sign, GOBI F3, Mission Indradhanush, PEM, neural tube defects, meningismus, hydrocephalus, seizure care, Nelson syndrome, humerus fractures, pediatric CPR, nephrotic

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 05/17/2025

cyrussila-antony
cyrussila-antony 🇺🇸

10 documents

1 / 6

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
1
SOLVED QUESTION PAPER OF NURSES
1) Differentiation of hysterical fit from epileptic fit:
a) Occurs in sleep b) Injuries to person
c) Incontinence d) Occurs when people are watching.
2) Which of the following is the feature of Alzheimer's disease?
a) Early memory loss b) Recent memory loss
c) Recent and past memory loss d) Global memory loss
3) Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning?
a) Dog learns to salivate on hearing a bell
b) Rat presses lever to get food delivered
c) Crow pecks at key for food delivery d) All of the above
4) Which of the following therapies is based on learning theory?
a) Behaviour therapy b) Psychoanalytic
c) Milieu Therapy d) Cognitive therapy
5) Culture media is sterilized by which of the following method?
a) Autoclaving b) Boiling
c) Hot air oven d) Ionizing radiation
6) When an infant is vomiting uncontrollably, it is important for the nurse to assess which
complications
a) Acidosis b) Alkalosis
c) Hypokalemia d) Hyperkalemia
7) Neonate of diabetic mother is at risk for all of the following except:
a) Hypoglycemia b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hyperglycemia d) Hyperbilirubinemia
8) Glucose is added to anti-diarrhoeal solution because:
a) It tastes sweet b) It increases absorption of amino acids
c) It increases absorption of sodium d) All of above
9) Case finding in RNTCP is based on :
a) Sputum culture b) Sputum microscopy
c) X-Ray chest d) Mantoux test/PCR
10) The most common cause of blindness in India is :
a) Cataract b) Trachoma
c) Refractive errors d) Vitamin deficiency
11) Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy :
a) Rubella b) Diphtheria
c) Tetanus d) Hepatitis B
D
C
B
A
A
B
D
C
B
A
A
pf3
pf4
pf5

Partial preview of the text

Download Solved Nursing Exam Questions: Comprehensive Review for Nurses and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

SOLVED QUESTION PAPER OF NURSES

  1. Differentiation of hysterical fit from epileptic fit: a) Occurs in sleep b) Injuries to person c) Incontinence d) Occurs when people are watching.

  2. Which of the following is the feature of Alzheimer's disease? a) Early memory loss b) Recent memory loss c) Recent and past memory loss d) Global memory loss

  3. Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning? a) Dog learns to salivate on hearing a bell b) Rat presses lever to get food delivered c) Crow pecks at key for food delivery d) All of the above

  4. Which of the following therapies is based on ‘learning theory’? a) Behaviour therapy b) Psychoanalytic c) Milieu Therapy d) Cognitive therapy

  5. Culture media is sterilized by which of the following method? a) Autoclaving b) Boiling c) Hot air oven d) Ionizing radiation

  6. When an infant is vomiting uncontrollably, it is important for the nurse to assess which complications a) Acidosis b) Alkalosis c) Hypokalemia d) Hyperkalemia

  7. Neonate of diabetic mother is at risk for all of the following except: a) Hypoglycemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hyperglycemia d) Hyperbilirubinemia

  8. Glucose is added to anti-diarrhoeal solution because: a) It tastes sweet b) It increases absorption of amino acids c) It increases absorption of sodium d) All of above

  9. Case finding in RNTCP is based on : a) Sputum culture b) Sputum microscopy c) X-Ray chest d) Mantoux test/PCR

  10. The most common cause of blindness in India is : a) Cataract b) Trachoma c) Refractive errors d) Vitamin deficiency

  11. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy : a) Rubella b) Diphtheria c) Tetanus d) Hepatitis B

D C B A A B D C B A A

  1. Which one of the following is the commonest side effects of copper-T : a) Pain b) Bleeding c) Perforation d) Ectopic pregnancy

  2. A patient develops red eyes 2 days after an episode of malaria probable cause is: a) Conjunctivitis b) Anterior uveitis c) Viral keratitis d) Endophthalmitis

  3. One tablet of chlorine is efficient to chlorinate how many litres of water? a) 10 Litres b) 20 Litres c) 30 Litres d) 40 Litres

  4. While planning nursing process for a patient who is at risk for suicide, which of the following is the priority area for providing care : a) Sleep b) Nutrition c) Self-esteem d) Safety

  5. Which of the following foods are recommended for mania patients: a) Finger foods b) Liquid foods c) semi-solid foods d) Favourite foods

  6. The India Mental Health Act was passed during the year. a) 1987 b) 1947 c) 1992 d) 1942

  7. Best test to access the fluid status in a burn patient is a) Electrolyte level b) Hematocrit c) Creatinine level d) Hemoglobin level

  8. What is the source of bright red blood flowing back into the tubing of an intravenous drip? a) Capillary blood b) Arterial blood c) Venous blood d) Peripheral blood

  9. GFR is increased by : a) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide b) Histamine c) Vasopressin d) Endotheium

  10. Bell's palsy is due to the injuries of which cranial nerve : a) Trigeminal b) Trochlear c) Facial d) Hypoglossal

  11. Fracture of distal radius is called: a) Hume fracture b) Galeazzi fracture c) Monteggia fracture d) Colle's fracture

B C B D A A B B A C D

  1. In breech presentation denominator is : a) Sacrum b) Femur c) Shoulder d) Leg

  2. Which of the following milestone is a red flag sign in child development if not attained? a) Walking at 12 months b) Talking single word at 12 months c) Social Smile at 3 months d) Vocalization at 2 months

  3. Growth chart is also known as: a) New Ballard Scale b) Road to health chart c) Apgar Score d) GCS Score

  4. What is nurse’s primary critical observation when performing an assessment for determining an Apgar score? a) Heart rate b) Respiratory rate c) Presence of meconium d) Evaluation of Moro reflex

  5. An infant is born precipitously outside the labor room. What should the nurse do first? a) Tie and cut the umbilical cord b) Establish an airway for the newborn c) Ascertain the condition of the uterine fundus d) Arrange transport for the mother and infant to the birthing unit

  6. Small for gestational age and large for gestational age infants have polycythemia because of: a) Hypocalcemia b) Hypoglycemia c) Hypoxia d) Hypothermia

  7. Key features of kangaroo mother care are all of the following EXCEPT: a) Skin to skin contact between mother and baby b) Exclusive breastfeeding c) Initiated in a facility and continued at home d) Done only for babies with cyanosis

  8. An 18 month old child was brought to the well-baby clinic for booster dose of DPT vaccine. Which among the following muscles is preferred by the nurse to administer vaccine? a) Dorsogluteal b) Ventrogluteal c) Deltoid d) Vastuslateralis

  9. Which Vaccine is contraindicated in child with history of Convulsions? a) DPT b) Measles c) Typhoid d) BCG

A C B A B C D D A

  1. Kramer’s rule is used for : a) Jaundice b) Necrotizing enterocolitis c) Burns d) Asphyxia

  2. Sunset sign is seen in the following condition: a) Pyloric Stenosis b) Hydrocephalus c) Tetralogy of Fallot d) Seizures

  3. Among the following all are the components of GOBI F3; EXCEPT: a) Female feticide b) Female education c) Immunization d) Food Supplements

  4. Mission Indradhanush programme is related to: a) Breast Feeding b) Family spacing c) Immunization d) Nutritional Supplementation

  5. According to GOMEZ classification, II-degree protein energy malnutrition refers to weight for age (%) of : a) <60% b) 60-75% c) 76-85% d) 86-90%

  6. Which of the following helps in prevention of neural tube defect in fetus? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Iron d) Folic Acid

  7. Meningismus refers to: a) Meningeal irritation sign without meningitis b) Meningitis without meningeal irritation sign c) Headache leading to meningitis d) It occurs commonly in adults

  8. Commonly used shunt in hydrocephalus management: a) Ventriculoatrial b) Ventriculoperitoneal c) Ventriculopericardial d) Ventriculopleural

  9. Most priority nursing intervention while caring for a child who is suffering from tonic- clonic seizure? a) Start oxygen by mask b) Make child sit and provide water c) Protect child from self-injury d) Apply restraints

  10. Nelson syndrome is seen after: a) Adrenalectomy b) Hypopituitarism c) Hyperpituitarism d) Deficiency of Growth hormone

  11. Which of the tractions is used to treat fractures of the humerus? a) Bryant’s traction b) Overhead suspension traction c) Thomas splint traction d) 90-90 traction

A B A C B D A B C A B