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RCIS Practice Test question with correct
answers 2023 updated to pass
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? - correct answer CO= HR x SV What is stroke volume related to? - correct answer preload Preload is most impacted by..... - correct answer Increased filling volumes A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate.... - correct answer Increased afterload Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by.... - correct answer Radius of the vessel The formula for BP is.... - correct answer BP = CO x SVR What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral insufficiency - correct answer V wave An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology - correct answer RV infarct If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment
- correct answer JVD What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis - correct answer Congenital The Blue proximal part of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan - correct answer 30 cm
When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of saline into the _____ and the temperature change is measured in the ______ - correct answer RA, PA Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in - correct answer restrictive pericarditis Signs of Right sided heart failure include - correct answer JVD Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat= 67% IVC sat= 71% RA sat= 85% RV sat= 85% PA sat= 85% LA sat= 98% LV sat= 98% AO sat= 98% - correct answer L to R ASD What type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called - correct answer Ostium Secundum What is the Flamm's equation - correct answer 3(SVC) + 1(IVC)/ The formula used to calculate MAP is - correct answer 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic)/ What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot - correct answer Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises - correct answer Truncas Arteriosus Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of - correct answer Cardiac Tamponade What does RAD stand for - correct answer Radiation absorbed dose What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images - correct answer Image intensifier What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually - correct answer 5 REM
If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give - correct answer fluids to hydrate If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given - correct answer Protamine Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT - correct answer Adenosine True/False If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized - correct answer True Lidocaine converts from 2GM in 500cc to - correct answer 4 mg in 1 cc Dopamine concentration 1600 mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concetration of - correct answer 400 mg in 250cc The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is - correct answer Versed/Midazolam The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is - correct answer NTG Amiodarone is used to treat - correct answer Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer - correct answer NTG Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _______ post contrast administration - correct answer Renal failure Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal - correct answer Mobitz 2 The Impella catheter most closely resembles - correct answer Pigtail
When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a "rate of rise" - correct answer It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect - correct answer inferior wall An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded - correct answer Cx How do you test the defibrillator - correct answer discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load) What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T Wave - correct answer You could put them into Vfib In 1st degree heart block, where is the conductive delay - correct answer AV node What is the normal PR interval - correct answer .12-. If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do - correct answer Unsymchronized cardioversion If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do - correct answer Do immediate synchronized cardioversion A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is - correct answer Perforation/Preicardial Effusion/Tamponade A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a
If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is a present, what should be suspected
- correct answer Pseudoaneurysm An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0 cm can be a finding for what - correct answer Aortic aneurysm Back pain not relieved NTG, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate - correct answer Aortic dissection Which stent is self expanding - correct answer Wall stent A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it - correct answer BFR In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed A. As distal as possible B. In the nearest side branch C. In a distal side branch D. Proximal to the lesion E. All of the above - correct answer All of the above Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblador - correct answer Calcified Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off - correct answer Amplatz Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include - correct answer Head of the sternocledomastoid muscle and the clavicular head When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from - correct answer RV
Hypokinetic means - correct answer decreased movement In the formula BP= HR x SV x Systematic Vascular Resistance, Dobutamie acts as an ____, to ____ by increasing____ - correct answer Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility Which of the following are Angiostensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS) A. Lisiopril B. Losartan C. Metoprolol D. Valstartan - correct answer Losartan and Valstartan NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating - correct answer Veins What is the function of low dose dopamine, 1-5mcg/kg/min - correct answer Improves renal function and urine output If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle - correct answer Medial Coronary arteries perfuse best during - correct answer Diastole What is the purpose of the IABP - correct answer Increased coronary perfusion, decreased afterload An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a - correct answer IR 4 What is the recommended rate of Burr rotation when using a Rotoblador - correct answer 160,000- 210, Overtightening of the Tuohy Borst will - correct answer prevent balloon inflation or deflation
The dorsalis pedal pulse is located - correct answer on the anterior foot The posterior tibial pulse is located - correct answer near the medial malleolus The site of myoxma is in the - correct answer LA The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is - correct answer AL What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure - correct answer NTG, Verapamil, Heparin The Allen's Test assesses the flow in the - correct answer blood flow in the radial and ulnar arteries The IABP catheter should be placed - correct answer above the renal artery and below the left subdivision Which of the following symptoms after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation - correct answer loss of pulses in the foot If the heart rate slows, what happens to stroke volume - correct answer increases what happens to myocardial contractile force (dp/dt) when the heart rate slows down - correct answer Increases The Eustachian valve is located - correct answer between the inferior vena cava and the right atrium The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to - correct answer Close a PFO Function of the percutamneous Impella - correct answer Evacuates 2.5 LPM from the LV; delivers it to the ascending aorta, improves CO, increases SV, improves coronary perfusion
The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the - correct answer left and right ICA and ECA The fossa ovalis is located - correct answer between the RA and LA What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis - correct answer Atherosclerosis Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the - correct answer proximal renal artery FFR measures - correct answer pressure distal to a stenosis True/False when interpreting FFR, an FFR of .80 means that a stenosis causes a 20% drop in blood pressure distal to a lesion - correct answer True True/False FFR expresses the maximal flow down a vessel in the presence of a stenosis compared to the maximal flow in the absence of a stenosis - correct answer True True/False When considering FFR, values greater than .75-.80 indicate a non-significant stenosis and lower values indicate a significant stenosis - correct answer True True/False When considering FFR, a significant stenosis (>70%) may yield an FFR >.80 if there is significant collateral flow to the vessel with the lesion in it - correct answer True True/False Pulses alternans is a sign of left sided heart failure - correct answer True
C. Surgical management D. All of the above - correct answer All of the above PSA's occur most commonly when the puncture site is the (Choose all that apply) A. CFA B. SFA C. External iliac artery D.Given inadequate compression time - correct answer SFA, external iliac artery, given inadequate compression time Physical signs of PSA may include (Choose all that apply) A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain D. Loss of pulse in the opposite legg - correct answer A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain Which of the following are not associated with a retroperitoneal blood - correct answer Cannulation 1 finger breath below the inguinal fold Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH - correct answer Kidneys Which of the following organ systems cannot cause changes in pH (Choose all that apply) A. GI/endocrine B. Liver/pancreas C. Heart/vascular D. Kidneys/Lungs - correct answer A. GI/endocrine B. Liver/pancreas
C. Heart/vascular Which of the following are necessary prior to correcting an ASD (Choose all that apply) A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum D. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium premium - correct answer A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum Identify all of the following that pertain to the crushing stent technique A. Created for lesions in a side branch B. Created for lesions in a bifurcation C. The first stent is positioned in the side branch with about 1/3 of its length protruding into the main branch D. A second stent is positioned in the main branch E. The side branch stent is deployed first F. The main branch stent is deployed second crushing the portion of the side branch stent in the main branch - correct answer All of the Above Contraindications for closure devices include (Choose all that apply) A. PVD B. Diabetes C. Cannulation above the inguinal fold D. Cannulation in the profunda - correct answer All of the above The incidence of vascular complications increases when the groin stick is how far below the inguinal fold (Choose all that Apply) A. <1 cm
C. Increased amount of contrast needed D. No change in the amount of contrast needed E. Decreased chance of injuring the LV - correct answer A. Decreased catheter whip D. No change in the amount of contrast needed E. Decreased chance of injuring the LV True/False Arteriosclerosis is the thickening/hardening and loss of elasticity of the walls of the arteries - correct answer True True/False Atherosclerosis is the build-up of plaque on the arterial wall - correct answer True what does a a properly timed atrial contraction do (Choose all that apply) A. Increases SV B. Decreases SV C. Increases CO D. Decreases CO - correct answer A. Increases SV C. Increases CO Symptoms of a retroperitoneal bleed include (Choose all that apply) A. Back pain B. Decreased Hgh and Hct C. Tachycardia D. Increased SV - correct answer A. Back pain B. Decreased Hgh and Hct C. Tachycardia Which of the following increases one's risk of a stroke (Choose all that apply)
A. A Fib B. V Fib C. V Flutter D. A Flutter - correct answer A. A Fib D. A Flutter Balloon expandable stents are used in the ____ and self-expanding stents are used in the _____ - correct answer Coronaries and corotids When heart rate slows (dp/dt) cardiac muscle fiber contraction.... - correct answer Increases Cardiac output is measured using which of the following parameters A. Pulmonary systolic pressure B. Heart rate C. SVC pressure D. SV - correct answer B. Heart rate D. SV Stoke volume is most affected by - correct answer preload Preload is impacted by - correct answer filling volumes Chronic untreated hypertension demonstrates (Choose all that apply) A. A risk factor for CAD B. Decreased preload C. increased afterload D. An indication for Coumadin therapy - correct answer A. A risk factor for CAD C. increased afterload
Pulmonic stenosis (Choose all that apply) A. Result from MR B. is a congenital anomaly C. Occurs with cardiomyopathy and pulmonary hypertension D. Is a narrowing of the pulmonic valve - correct answer B. is a congenital anomaly D. Is a narrowing of the pulmonic valve The blue proximal port of the swan (Choose all that apply) A. is located 45 cm from the distal tip of the swan B. the port used to measure PCW C. Is located 30 cm from the distal tip of the swan D. The port used to inject saline for a cardiac output - correct answer C. Is located 30 cm from the distal tip of the swan D. The port used to inject saline for a cardiac output The transducer is zeroed and falls off the table to the floor (Choose all that apply) A. The pressure being read is now reading higher B. The pressure being read is now lower C. The transducer dropping to the floor wont affect the pressure readings D. The transducer should be re-zeroed - correct answer A. The pressure being read is now reading higher D. The transducer should be re-zeroed Pulsus paradoxus (Choose all that apply) A. is a sign of tamponade B. Demonstrates abnormal variation in filling pressures during inspiration C. Can be seen on a PCW tracing D. Is caused by cardiomyopathy - correct answer A. is a sign of tamponade B. Demonstrates abnormal variation in filling pressures during inspiration C. Can be seen on a PCW tracing
Signs of LV failure include (Choose all that apply) A. Bilateral peripheral edema B. Ascities C. Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion D. Decreased exercise tolerance and a decreased EF - correct answer C. Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion D. Decreased exercise tolerance and a decreased EF Constrictive pericarditis (Choose all that apply) A. causes equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP B. Decreases SV C. Decreased CO D. increases exercise tolerance - correct answer A. causes equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP B. Decreases SV C. Decreased CO Right heart failure (Choose all that apply) A. Causes a decreased O2 sat B. causes JVD C. causes unilateral peripheral edema D. Causes bilateral peripheral edema - correct answer B. causes JVD D. Causes bilateral peripheral edema Choose the views that result in a higher dose to the patient A. Lateral B. LAO 60 and 30 cranial C. AP D. RAO 40 - correct answer A. Lateral
