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RDH California, Registered Dental Hygienist
Law and Ethics Exam| Questions and
Verified Answers| Latest 2023/ 2024 Update|
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QUESTION
All DHCP shall comply with infection control precautions and enforce the following minimum precautions to protect patients and DHCP and to minimize transmission of pathogens in health care settings as mandated by California division of OSHA Answer:
- Standard precautions shall be practiced in the care of all patients
- A written protocol shall be developed, maintained, and periodically updated for proper instrument procession, operatory cleanliness, and management of injuries. the protocol shall be made available to all DHCP at the dental office.
- A copy of this regulation shall be conspicuously posted in each dental office.
QUESTION
What PPE should be worn? Answer:
- Surgical masks in combination with either chin length plastic face shield or protective eyewear whenever there is potential for aerosol spray, splashing or spattering.
- Chemical-resistant utility gloves and appropriate PPE shall be worn when handling hazardous chemicals
- Protective attire shall be worn for disinfection, sterilization, and housekeeping procedures involving germicides or handling contaminated items. *attire must be changed daily or between patients if visibly soiled or moist and must be removed when leaving lab or area of patient care.
QUESTION
What do you do with PPE after each patient?
Answer: Masks must be changed and disposed. Face shields and eyewear should be cleaned, disinfected, or disposed.
QUESTION
Hand hygiene protocols Answer: All DHCP must wash hands with soap and water at the start and end of each workday. They will wash contaminated or visibly soiled hands with soap and water and put on new gloves before treating patient. If hands aren't visibly soiled or contaminated an alcohol based rub may be used. Hands should be thoroughly dried before putting on gloves and washed immediately after removal of gloves. *all DHCP with exudative lesions or weeping dermatitis of the hand shall refrain from all direct patient care and from handling equipment until condition resolves.
QUESTION
When should medical exam gloves be worn? Answer: whenever there is contact with: mucous membranes blood OPIM during all: pre-clinical clinical post-clinical lab procedures
QUESTION
When should gloves be discarded?
All rotary hand pieces and components shall be packaged, labeled and heat-sterilized same as a semi-critical item.
QUESTION
How often should you test sterilization devices? Answer: at least once weekly with a biological indicator. Results should be documented and maintained for 12 months.
QUESTION
How should you clean non-critical items in operatory? Answer: Items that are unable to be disinfected should be protected with an impervious barrier that would be changed after each patient and when visibly soiled. All other surfaces should be disinfected with a hospital grade low to intermediate germicide after each patient.
QUESTION
What should be done daily with water/air lines? Answer: They should be flushed for 2 minutes at beginning of the day before attaching handpieces or other devices. The lines and devices should be flushed between patients for at least 20 seconds.
QUESTION
Definition of Committee Answer: the Dental Hygiene Committee of California (DHCC)
QUESTION
Definition of Dental Board Answer: the Dental Board of California
QUESTION
Direct supervision Answer: A set of procedures where The dentist must physically be present in treatment facility
QUESTION
General supervision Answer: Procedures where the dentist does NOT need to be physically present in treatment facility
QUESTION
Oral prophylaxis Answer: Preventative and therapeutic dental procedures that include -- bacterial debridements with complete removal of supra and sub calculus, soft deposits, plaque and stains. And to smooth out tooth surfaces
QUESTION
What is the purpose of the prophylaxis Answer:
---Administration of local anesthesia ---Administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen, whether administered in tandem or alone.
QUESTION
What can an rdh do under general supervision Answer: --- preventative and therapeutic interventions including : oral prophylaxis, scaling and root planing ---application of topical, therapeutic and subgingival agents used for the control of caries and periodontal disease. ---the taking of impressions for bleaching trays and activation of non laser, light curing devices ---the taking of impressions for bleaching trays and placements of in office tooth whitening devices
QUESTION
What can an rdh do without any supervision Answer:
- Educational services
- Oral health training programs
- Oral health screenings *rdh must refer any screened patients with abnormalities to a dentist to receive a comprehensive exam, diagnosis and a treatment plan
QUESTION
In a government public health program an rdh may provide without supervision the following: Answer:
- oral prophylaxis,srp.
- Fluoride application
- Pit and fissure sealants
- the rdh may submit insurance claims for the services provided under the public health programs.
QUESTION
No person shall be allowed to practice as a dental hygenist except for what Exceptions Answer: ---a student in a dental/dental hygiene school performing the curriculum. ---a dental assistant acting under the rules of the dental board may perform the following: *taking impressions *applying fluorides *applying non-areosol and non caustic topical agents --- an rda acting under the rules of the dental board my perform the following: *coronal polishing *applying bleaching agents *activating bleaching agents with a non laser light curing device *applying pit and fissure sealants ---an rdaef can apply a pit and fissure sealant ---a rdh,rdhap,rdhef that is licensed in a different juristriction that is performing a clinical demonstration for educational purposes
QUESTION
What is the timeframe required to notify the board if there are any name changes or address/email changes (1934) Answer: The board must be notified within 30 days for all living address and email address changes The board must be notified within 10 days of a name change
QUESTION
When does a license expire (1935) Answer: 12 midnight On the last day of the birth month of the applicant on the second year of a 2 year term License is good for 2 years must renew prior to that day
QUESTION
When would the committee undertake proceedings under this section? (1950) Answer: upon receipt of a certified copy of the record of conviction. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere made to a charge of a felony or of any misdemeanor related to the licensee's qualifications, functions, or duties
QUESTION
Define Unprofessional conduct Answer: See law 1950.
QUESTION
When a licensee is placed on probation what could be the terms of probation (1951) Answer: Requirement to receive additional training - or- Requirement to pass an exam ( the exam can be written, oral, clinical , or practical. Or all) - or both- If the probation is because of physical or mental issues, there may be an examination required by physician --restriction or limiting of the scope of practice. ---Licensee may need to pay restitution to pts Community service may be option in lieu of part or all of a period of suspension in cases other than violations relating to quality of care
QUESTION
It is unprofessional conduct in relation to controlled substances to do what (1952)
Answer: ---Obtain or possess a controlled substance ---Use of a controlled substance, dangerous drug or alcoholic beverage to an extent or manner dangerous to himself, any person, or public. ---be convicted of a charge that is federal or state regarding a controlled substance - or be convicted of more than one misdemeanor, or any felony, involving the use or consumption of alcohol or drugs
QUESTION
What happens if a participant withdraws or is terminated from the diversion program? (1966.1) Answer:
- If the licensee presents a threat to the public's health and safety, the committee will use the diversion treatment records in the criminal proceedings
- They are subject to disciplinary action by the committee for acts committed before, during, and after participation in the diversion program.
QUESTION
If a person is admitted into a diversion program what are their responsibilities and what could happen if they do not comply (1966.4) Answer: They need to pay for all costs of the program ( unless the committee waives the fees) If they do not abide by the rules they may be terminated from the program
QUESTION
In regards to the subversion of licensing examinations what could the crime be and what can you NOT do (123) Answer: The crime is a misdemeanor. You can not --remove materials from exam --unauthorized reproduction of any exam materials
Answer: No. They are strongly encouraged to though. They are required to provide employees who are mandated reporters with the statement required pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 11166.
QUESTION
What is the protocol for reporting abuse, reasonably suspected abuse or neglect of a child? (11166 a.) Answer: They shall make an initial report by phone to the agency immediately or as soon as possible, and shall send, fax, or email a written followup report within 36 hours of incident.
QUESTION
What is reasonable suspicion? (11166 a.1) Answer: it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could cause a reasonable person in a like position, drawing on their training and experience, to suspect child abuse or neglect. ---It doesn't require certainty or a specific medical indication. *The pregnancy of a minor does not, in itself, constitute a basis for reasonable suspicion of sexual abuse.
QUESTION
What if a mandated reporter fails to report abuse? (11166 c.) Answer: They are guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to 6 months in county jail or by a fine of $1,000 or by both imprisonment and fine.
QUESTION
What if two people, who are required to report, have knowledge of suspected abuse? (11166 h.) Answer: They will mutually agree who will make a single report. If that person fails to make the report, the other person should then make the report.
QUESTION
Is reporting the information to an employer the same as a mandated report? (11166 i.3) Answer: No. You must report directly to the specified agency.
QUESTION
Health practioner according to 15610. Answer: is a dental hygienist
QUESTION
Who is a mandated reporter for elder abuse? (15630) Answer: Any person who has assumed full or intermittent responsibility for the care or custody of an elder or dependent adult including a health practitioner (dental hygienist)
QUESTION
What is elder abuse? Answer: physical abuse, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect.
What are the requirements of continuing education (1017) Answer: Dentists 50 hr Rdh- 25 hrs Rdh ap- 35 hours 2 units need to be infection control 2 units need to be for California Dental Practice Act 4 units max. of Basic Life Support
QUESTION
Can CEs be taken online or at home? (1017 h.&i.) Answer: Yes but these materials (non-live instruction) cannot exceed 50% of the licensee's total required units. Live interactive courses can be taken online and can be counted to make up the other 50%
QUESTION
How long do you have to keep CE certificates? (1017 n.) Answer: 3 renewal periods (6 years). You will need to forward these to the board upon an audit.
QUESTION
6 core principles of ethical dental care Answer:
- Nonmaleficence
- Veracity
- Autonomy
- Beneficence
- Confidentiality
- Justice
QUESTION
Nonmaleficence Answer: Do no harm
QUESTION
Veracity Answer: Our obligation to tell the truth
QUESTION
Autonomy Answer: Pt's right to informed consent prior to treatment with full disclosure of relevant information to make an informed decision about treatment.
QUESTION
Beneficence Answer: Do good - promote the well being of individuals and the public by engaging in health promotion/disease prevention activities
QUESTION
Confidentiality
QUESTION
Tolerance Answer: Tolerance to diversity requires dentists to recognize cultural and ethnic differences and how they may affect patient choices and treatment
QUESTION
Informed Consent Answer: A dentist has an obligation to obtain informed consent of the patient prior to treatment or the use of identifiable artifacts (photos, x-rays, study models). This includes: Explanation of proposed treatment, reasonable alternatives, and the risk of not performing treatment. It must be explained in a manner that is accurate, easily understood, and allows the patient to be involved in the decision of their oral health or for participation in research. You do not need consent to take photos, x-rays or impressions if suspecting abuse.
QUESTION
Integrity-honor Answer: Requires the dentist to behave with honor and decency. He affirms core values and recognizes when words, actions or intentions are in conflict with one's values and conscience.
QUESTION
Standard Precautions Answer: a group of infection prevention practices that apply to all patients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status, in any setting in which healthcare is delivered. These include: hand hygiene, use of gloves, gown, mask, eye protection, or face shield, depending on the anticipated exposures, and safe handling of sharps.
QUESTION
Critical items Answer: confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microorganism. These include: all instruments, devices, and other items used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
QUESTION
Semi-critical items-contact oral mucosa Answer: are instruments, devices and other items that are not used to penetrate soft tissue or bone, but contact oral mucous membranes, non-intact skin or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM)
QUESTION
Non-critical items-no oral mucosa Answer: are instruments, devices, equipment, and surfaces that come in contact with soil, debris, saliva, blood, OPIM and intact skin, but not oral mucous membranes
QUESTION
Low-level disinfection-kills some bacteria,vuris,fingi Answer: is the least effective disinfection process. It kills some bacteria, some viruses and fungi, but doesn't kill bacterial spores or mycobacterium tuberculosis var bovis (TB), a lab test organism used to classify the strength of disinfection chemicals.
QUESTION
