Download REHS Practice Test Questions With Complete Solutions: Pool Water Chemistry and Sanitation and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
REHS Practice Test Questions With
Complete Solutions
Soil permeability procedure involves evaluating a soil core or test pit. What does the procedure yield? a. Permeability estimated seepage rate b. Permeability estimated application rate c. Permeability estimated range correct answer: b. Permeability estimate How does chlorine kill microorganisms and bacteria? a. By weakening enzymes and destroying internal organelles b. By attacking lipids in cell walls and destroying enzymes and structures inside c. By breaking bonds and poisoning the cell correct answer: b. By attacking lipids in cell walls and destroying enzymes and structures inside When chlorine is added to water, what is formed? a. Hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion b. Hypochlorite acid and hypochlorite ion c. Hypochloric acid and hypochlorite ion correct answer: a. Hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion What two acids are formed when you add liquefied chlorine gas (Cl2) to water?
a. Hypochlorite acid and hydrochloric acid b. Hypochlorous acid and hydrochloric acid c. Hypochloric acid and hydrochloric acid correct answer: b. Hypochlorous acid (HOCL) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) What cause pH to jump? a. Low alkalinity, precipitation, algae growth b. High alkalinity, precipitation, algae growth c. Low alkalinity, high calcium hardness, algae growth correct answer: a. Low alkalinity, precipitation, algae growth What do you add to lower pH? a. Sodium bisulphate (NaHSO4) b. HCl c. aerate with CO d. all of the above correct answer: d. all of the above What do you add to raise pH? a. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) (Soda Ash) b. Sodium bicarbonate c. Sodium bisulphate correct answer: a. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) (Soda Ash) Why do you use algaecides in pool even though chlorine is used? a. Chlorine is not effective against algae
How do you eliminate existing algae? a. Superchlorinate b. Copper Sulfate CuSO c. Sodium carbonate Na2SO d. a and b correct answer: d. a and b Superchlorination is used to combat all of the following, except: a. Algae b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Giardia lamblia e. Leptospira spp. f. Cryptosporidium spp. g Schistosoma spp. correct answer: e. Leptospira spp. How often should a private pool be shocked? a. Every month, every 2 weeks when hot b. Every 2 weeks, every week when hot c. Every week, every 2 days when hot correct answer: b. Every 2 weeks, every week when hot When is it time to shock a public pool? a. When combined chlorine > 0.2 ppm b. When combined chlorine > 0.4 ppm c. When combined chlorine > 0.6 ppm correct answer: a. When combined chlorine > 0.2 ppm
How much chlorine is needed to shock? a. Bring water to 2X value for CC b. Bring water to 5 X value for CC c. Bring water to 10 X value for CC d. Bring water to 15 X value for CC correct answer: c. Bring water to 10X value for CC What kind of shock can be used when superchlorinating a brome pool? a. Potassium monopersulfate b. Potassium chloride c. Potassium iodide correct answer: a. Potassium monopersulfate Why would an operator use bromine sanitizer over chlorine sanitizer? a. Cheaper b. Easier to maintain pH c. Better residual d. a and c correct answer: d. a and c What is the ideal range of chlorine in swimming pools? a. 1.0-4. b. 2.0-5. c. 3.0-6. d. 4.0-7.0 correct answer: a. 1.0-4.
c. Flume pools correct answer: b. Outdoor pools Brome is easily destroyed by UV What is the flow rate of DE filters? a. 2.0 gpm/ft b. 3.0 gpm/ft c. 4.0 gpm/ft d. 5.0 gpm/ft2 correct answer: a. 2.0 gpm/ft What is the flow rate of rapid rate sand filters? a. 2.0 gpm/ft b. 3.0 gpm/ft c. 4.0 gpm/ft d. 5.0 gpm/ft2 correct answer: b. 3.0 gpm/ft What is the flow rate of high rate sand filters? a. 2- 15 gpm/ft b. 5-20 gpm/ft c. 7-30 gpm/ft2 correct answer: b. 5-10 gpm/ft What is the turnover rate of a wading pool? a. 30 minutes b. 1-2 hours c. 3-4 hours d. 6-8 hours correct answer: b. 1-2 hours What is the turnover rate of a private pool?
a. 2 hours b. 6 hours c. 12 hours correct answer: c. 12 hours What is alkalinity? a. measure of aid reducing capacity available in water b. measure of activity of dissolved hydrogen ions c. measure of dissolved acids in water correct answer: a. measure of acid reducing capacity available in water aka ability to resist change in pH What is pH? a. measure of acid reducing capacity available in water b. measure of activity of dissolved hydrogen ions c. measure of dissolved acids in water correct answer: b. measure of activity of dissolved hydrogen ions What is the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration? a. Inverse Relationship High pH; Low Hydrogen ion concentration b. Direct Relationship High pH; High Hydrogen ion concentration correct answer: a. Inverse Relationship High pH; Low hydrogen ion concentration Low pH; High hydrogen ion concentration
b. 300/ml c. 400/ml correct answer: c. 400/ml What is the pool water standard for Staphylococcus spp.? a. not more than 20 cfu/ml b. not more than 50 cfu/ml c. not more than 80 cfu/ml correct answer: b. not more than 50 cfu/ml What is the pool water standard for clarity? a. 4 in secchi disk clear to pool bottom b. 6 in secchi disk clear to pool bottom c. 8 in secchi disk clear to pool bottom correct answer: b. 6 in secchi disk clear to pool bottom 90% of contaminants in pool water exist where? a. In the skimmers b. Bottom of the pool c. Surface of the water correct answer: c. Surface of the water What percentage of water must be recirculated from gutters and skimmers? a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70% correct answer: c. 60%
According to EPA recommended standards for fecal coliform counts, how many samples must be taken? a. Not less than 3 samples over 30 days b. Not less than 5 samples over 30 days c. Not less than 7 samples over 30 days correct answer: b. Not less than 5 samples over 30 days According to EPA recommended standards for fecal coliform counts, what must the log mean not exceed? a. Not to exceed log mean 100 colonies/100 ml b. Not to exceed log mean 200 colonies/100 ml c. Not to exceed log mean 300 colonies/100 ml correct answer: b. Not to exceed log mean 200 colonies/100 ml According to EPA recommended standards for fecal coliform counts, no more than 10% of total samples during any 30 day period shall exceed ______: a. 200 colonies/100 ml b. 300 colonies/100 ml c. 400 colonies/100 ml d. 500 colonies/100 ml correct answer: c. 400 colonies/100 ml What is the required beach area density per person? a. 20-100 ft2/person b. 50-200 ft2/person c. 80-250 ft2/person correct answer: b. 50-200 ft2/person
What is an epidemic? a. Outbreak or many disease cases in a community at a particular time b. The disease is prevalent or established in an area c. Disease occurs over a wide geographical area and affects a very high proportion of the population, in excess of normal correct answer: a. Outbreak or many disease cases in a community at a particular time What is an endemic? a. Outbreak or many disease cases in a community at a particular time b. Disease is prevalent or established in an area c. Disease occurs over wide geographic area and affects a very high proportion of the population, in excess of normal. correct answer: b. Disease is prevalent or established in an area What is a pandemic? a. Outbreak or many disease cases in a community at a particular time b. Disease is prevalent or established in an area c. Disease occurs over wide geographic area and affects a very high proportion of the population, in excess of normal. correct answer: c. Disease occurs over wide geographic area and affects a very high proportion of the population, in excess of normal.
True or False? Zoonosis diseases are species specific. correct answer: False! Zoonosis diseases are transmissible from animals to humans. What is panzootic? a. Outbreak or many disease cases that effects many animals in a community at a particular time b. Disease that affects animals is prevalent or established in an area c. Widespread outbreak affects many animals over a large geographic area, in excess of normal correct answer: c. Widespread disease affects many animals over wide geographic area, in excess of normal. What does the FQPA ( Food Quality Protection Act) do? a. Reassess tolerances/max permitted residues of pesticides b. Reassess the number of allowed pesticides in the US c. Reassess the requirements for using and applying pesticides correct answer: a. Reassess tolerances/max permitted residues of pesticides What clause did the FQPA replace? correct answer: Delaney Clause True or False? Anyone can use restricted use labels. correct answer: False! Must ALWAYS have a license. What class of insecticide is PBO (piperonyl butoxide) and what does it do?
b. Technique used to genetic fingerprint pathogens c. Technique used to amplify DNA samples correct answer: a. Technique used to replicate DNA in samples with minute amounts of DNA What is PFGE (Pulsed-Field Gel Electrophoresis)? a. Genetic fingerprinting of pathogens b. Biochemical detection of presence of antibody or antigen c. DNA fingerprinting to identify base-pair sequences correct answer: a. Genetic fingerprinting of pathogens What are the 5 D's of mosquito control? correct answer: Dawn Dusk Dress Deet Drain All of the following are control methods against ticks, except: a. Repellents b. Twist pull or Vaseline removal method c. Self-inspection d. Full, light colored clothing e. Vegetation management correct answer: b. Twist pull or Vaseline removal method What is the best method of control against lice? a. Hair removal b. Regular bathing and laundering at 130°F/hot drying
c. Chemical application correct answer: b. Regular bathing and laundering at 130°F/hot drying How do you know that lice nits have hatched? a. They will be wiggling around b. The nits are 1/4" above scalp c. Symptoms of itchiness will increase correct answer: b. The nits are 1/4" above scalp Adult fleas feed on blood, while larvae feed on _______: a. Hair b. Detritus or dead skin c. Lipids found underneath the skin correct answer: b. Detritus or dead skin What is Precor used for? a. Tick control b. Flea control c. Mite control correct answer: b. Flea control insect growth regulator very effective control of larvae What is an obligatory ectoparasite? a. Parasite that lives on the outside b. Parasite that subdermally burrows c. Parasites that need to internally propagate correct answer: a. Parasite that lives on the outside
The following methods are used to control cockroaches? a. Sanitation b. Sticky traps c. Baits traps d. a and c correct answer: d. a and c. Trick question! Sticky traps are only for monitoring What disease do cockroaches sometimes carry in their stomachs? a. E. coli b. Salmonella c. Shigella d. Hepatitis A correct answer: b. Salmonella When is the "building out" method used? a. In presence of rabies, except fi there are babies b. In absence of rabies, except if there are babies correct answer: b. In absence of rabies, except if there are babies What diseases do Bats transmit? a. Rabies and Ornithosis b. Rabies and Histoplasmosis c. Rabies and Onchocerciasis correct answer: b. Rabies and Histoplasmosis
What disease do Birds transmit? a. Orinthosis (parrot fever) and Histoplasmosis b. Orinthosis (parrot fever) and Yersinia Pestis c. Orinthosis (parrot fever) and Scabies correct answer: a. Orinthosis (parrot fever) and Histoplasmosis What disease does body lice cause? a. Trench fever, Louse-borne relapse fever, Epidemic Thyphus b. Trench fever, Louse-borne relapse fever, Endemic Typhus c. Trench fever, Scrub Typhus, Epidemic Tyhpus correct answer: a. Trench fever, louse-borne relapse fever, epidemic tyhpus What agent is transmitted by Epidemic Typhus? a. Rickettsia rickettsia b. Rickettsia prowazekeii c. Rickettsia typhi d. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi correct answer: b. Rickettsia prowazekeii What agent is transmitted by Scrub Typhus? a. Rickettsia rickettsia b. Rickettsia prowazekeii c. Rickettsia typhi d. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi correct answer: d. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
