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RHIA Mock Exam: Comprehensive Questions and Answers for Healthcare Professionals, Exams of Nursing

This document offers a valuable resource for students and professionals preparing for the registered health information administrator (rhia) exam. it presents a series of multiple-choice questions covering various aspects of health information management, including coding, reimbursement, data analysis, and patient care. the questions test knowledge of medical terminology, healthcare regulations, and data management practices, providing a comprehensive review of key concepts. each question includes the correct answer, allowing for self-assessment and targeted study.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/12/2025

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RHIA MOCK EXAM WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2025
UPDATE
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RHIA MOCK EXAM WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2025

UPDATE

Each month the staff of the clinic with the lowest overall waiting time is awarded a free dessert in the Gulf side healthcare center cafeteria. take a look at the information listed above. the winner will be selected based on a. demonstrative clinical data b. comparative aggregate data c. objective individual data d. duplicate thematic data - Correct answer-b. comparative aggregate data a union campaign is being conducted at your facility. as a department manager, it is appropriate for you to tell employees that a. a strike is inevitable if the union wins b. wages will increase if the union is defeated c. you need the names of those involved in union activities d. you are opposed to the union - Correct answer-d. you are opposed to the union as the coding supervisor, your job description includes working with agents who have been charged with detecting and correcting over payments made to your hospital in the Medicare Fee for Service program. you will need to develop a professional relationship with a. the OIG b. MEDPAR representatives c. QIO physicians d. recovery audit contractors - Correct answer-d. recovery audit contractors employing the SOAP style of progress notes, choose the "assessment" statement

based on the MS-DRG report above, what is the case-mix index for this facility? a. 0. b. 2. c. 11. d. 57 - Correct answer-b. 2. the special form or view that plays the central role in planning and providing care at skilled nursing, psychiatric, and rehabilitation facilities is the a. interdisciplinary patient care plan b. medical history and review of systems c. interval summary d. problem list - Correct answer-a. interdisciplinary patient care plan Four patients were discharged from crestview hospital yesterday. a final progress note is an appropriate discharge summary for a. howard, who died within 24 hours after his admission for a second heart attack in 2 weeks. b. jackson, who had no comorbidities or complications during this admission for replacement of a pacemaker battery c. fieldstone, who was admitted just 15 days following a heart attack for the acute onset of chest pain. d. babson, who delivered a healthy 8-pound boy without complications for either mother or child, and was discharged within 36 hours of admission. - Correct answer-d. babson, who delivered a healthy 8-pound boy without complications for either mother or child, and was discharged within 36 hours of admission. Make Me Better Clinic (MMBC) provides well child visits and childhood immunizations for four insurance companies. data on the services they provided and the reimbursement they received from the four companies are listed in the two tables below. MMBC receives the best reimbursement for well child visits from a. lifecare b. getwell c. surehealth d. behealthy - Correct answer-b. getwell Make Me Better Clinic (MMBC) provides well child visits and childhood immunizations for four insurance companies. data on the services they provided and the reimbursement they received from the four companies are listed in the two tables below. Most of the children who are seen at MMBC will have a well child visit and two immunizations. If you add the reimbursement for two immunizations to the reimbursement for each well child visit, which insurance company benefits MMBC most?

a. lifecare b. getwell c. surehealth d. behealthy - Correct answer-b. getwell

note in the patient record c. generally maintained in a facility's electronic mail system until the next face- to-face patient encounter d. not typically maintained or documented as patient encounters. - Correct answer-a. considered health care business records and are subject to the same regulations as records created in face-to-face patient encounters

the proposed national healthcare information network (NHIN) dimensions are graphically depicted in the diagram above. roman numeral are added to allow for the identification of specific areas. where would information concerning a patient's health insurance be located on this chart? a. I b. II c. III d. V - Correct answer-b. II The facility's policy for physician's verbal orders in accordance with state law and regulations needs updating. the first area of investigation is the qualifications of those individuals who have been authorized to record verbal orders. for this information you will consult the a. policy and procedure manual b. hospital's quality management plan. c. data dictionary d. hospital bylaws, rules, and regulations - Correct answer-d. hospital bylaws, rule, and regulations. Parker has type 1 diabetes with hypertension taht is currently controlled with medication. parker was admitted through the ED for an emergency appendectomy. following surgery, the patient developed an infection at the wound site that was treated with antibiotics. when making decision about sequencing the codes for this case, the coder should rely on definitions found in the a. UHDDS b. coding clinic c. CMS coding guidelines d. federal register - Correct answer-a. UHDDS Parker has type 1 diabetes with hypertension taht is currently controlled with medication. parker was admitted through the ED for an emergency appendectomy. following surgery, the patient developed an infection at the wound site that was treated with antibiotics. Parker's principal diagnosis is the a. complications of hypertension b. comorbidity of the wound infection c. comorbidity of type 1 diabets d. acute appendicitis - Correct answer-d. acute appendicitis Dr. Reed tried to explain wound care to Mr. Baker prior to discharge, but Bake (who is 104 and moderately senile) just could not seem to understand or

c. in the discharge summary and on a patient instructions form signed by Dr. Reed and Mr. Baker and filed in Baker's medical record. d. in the discharge summary and on a patient instructions form signed by Dr. Reed and Mr. Baker's daughter and filed in Mr. Baker's medical record. - Correct answer-d. in the discharge summary and on a patient instructions form signed by Dr. Reed and Mr. Baker's daughter and filed in Mr. Baker's medical record The physician has documented the final diagnoses as acute myocardial infaraction, COPD, CHF, hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and status-post cholecystectomy. The following conditions should be reported: I10 Essential Hypertension, benign I10 Essential Hypertension, unspecified I11 Hypertension, heart disease, unspecified as to malignant or benign, with heart failure I21.3 Acute Myocardial infarction, unspecified site, initial episode of care I48.91 Atrial Fibrilation I50.9 Congestive Heart Failure, unspecified J44.9 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Z90.89 Acquire absence of gallbladder a. I21.3, J44.9, I21.3, I48.91, Z90. b. I11, J44.9, I50.9, I10, I48. c. I11, J44.9, I50.9, I10, I48.91, Z90. d. I11, J44.9, I50.9, I10, I48.91 - Correct answer-B. I11, J44.9, I50.9, I10, I48. Mary is 6 weeks postmastectomy for carcinoma of the breast. she is admitted for chemotherapy. What is the correct sequencing of the codes C50.911 Malignant Neoplasm of the Breast Z85.3 Personal History of malignant neople of breast Z51.11 Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy Z08 Follow-up exam after surgery a. Z51.11, C50. b. Z51.11, Z85. c. Z08, Z51. d. Z85.3 - Correct answer-A. Z51.11, C50. Which of the following is coded as an adverse effect in ICD-9- CM? a. tinnitus due to allergic reaction after administration of ear drops b. mental retardation due to intracranial abscess c. rejection of transplanted kidney d. nonfunctioning pacemaker due to defective soldering - Correct answer-a. tinnitus due to allergice reaction after administration of ear drops

which of the following scenarios identifies a pathologic fracture? a. greenstick fracture secondary to fall from bed b. compression fracture of the skull after being hit with a baseball bat c. vertebral fracture with cord compression following a car accident

four people were seen in your emergency department yesterday. which one will be coded as a poisoning?

  • josh was diagnosed with digitalis intoxication -ben had an allergic reaction to a dye adminstered for a pyelogram
  • bryan developed syncope after taking Contac pills with a double scotch -matthew had an idiosyncratic reaction between two properly administered prescription drugs a. josh

b. ben c. bryan d. matthew - Correct answer-c. bryan Patient is admitted for elective cholecystectomy for treatment of chronic cholecystititis with cholelithiasis. prior to administration of general anesthesia, patient suffers cerebral thrombosis. surgery is subsequently canceled. code and sequence the coding from the following codes. I66.9 cerebral thrombosis without cerebral infarction K80.10 chronic cholecystitis with cholelithiasis Z53.09 Iatrogenic cerebrovascular infarction or hemorrhage OFT40ZZ Cholecystectomy, total a. I97.821, K80.10, OFT4OZZ b. K80.10, I66.9, Z53. C. I97.821, I66.9, Z53. d. I66.9, Z53.09 - Correct answer-b. K80.10, I66.9, Z53. The discharge diagnosis for this inpatient encounter is rule out myocardial infarction. the coder would assign. a. a code for myocardial infarction b. a code for the patient's symptoms c. a code for an impending myocardial infarction d. no code for this condition - Correct answer-a. a code for myocardial infarction. staging a. refers to the monitoring of incidence and trends associated with a disease b. is continued medical surveillance of a case c. is a system for documenting the extent or spread of cancer d. designated the degree of differentiation of cells - Correct answer-c. is a system for documenting the extent or spread of cancer which of these conditions are always considered "present on admission" (POA)? a. congenital conditions b. E codes c. acute conditions d. possible, probable, or suspected conditions - Correct answer-a. congenital conditions in your state, it is legal for minors to seek medical treatment for a sexually transmitted disease without parental consent. when this occurs, who would be

a patient is admitted through the emergency department. three days after admission, the physician documents uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. what is the "present on admission" (POA) indicator for uncontrolled diabetes mellitus? a. "Y" b. "U" c. "W" d. "N" - Correct answer-D. "N" The patient had a thrombectomy, without catheter, of the peroneal artery, by leg incision. 34203 embolectomy or thrombectomy, with or without catheter; popliteal- tibioperoneal 35226 repair blood vessel, direct; lower extremity 35302 thromboendarterectomy, including patch graft if performed; superficial femoral artery 37799 unlisted procedure, vascular surgery a. 34203 b. 37799 c. 35302 d. 35226 - Correct answer-a. 34203 Patient was seen for excision of two interdigital neuromas from the left foot 28080 excision, interdigital(morton) neuroma, single, each 64774 excision of neuroma; cutaneous nerve, surgically identifiable 64776 excision of neuroma; digital nerve, one or both, same digit a. 64774 b. 64776 c. 28080 d. 28080, 28080 - Correct answer-d. 28080, 28080 Patient was seen in the Emergency Department with lacerations on the left arm. Two lacerations, one 7 cm and one 9 cm, were closed with layered sutures 12002 simple repair of superficial wounds of scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk and/or extremities(including hands and feet); 2.6-7.5cm 12004 simple repair of superficial wounds of scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk and/or extremities (including hands and feet); 7.6-12.5 cm 12035 Layer closure of wounds of scalp, axillae, trunk and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) 12.6-20.0cm 12045 Layer closure of wounds of neck, hands, feet and/or external genitalia; 12-6- 20.0 cm a. 12045 b. 12035 c. 12002, 12004 d. 12004 - Correct answer-b. 12035

Office visit for 43-year old male, new patient, with no complications. patient is applying for life insurance and requests a physical examination. a detailed health and family

90700-diptheria, tetanus toxoids, and acellular pertussis vaccine DTaP, when admistered to indivduals younger than 7 years, for intramuscular use 90720-diptheria, tetanus toxoids, and whole cell pertussis vaccine and hemophilus influenza B vaccine (DTP-Hib), for intramuscular use.

90721- diptheria, tetanus toxoids, and acellular pertussis vaccine and hemophilus influenza B vaccine (DTaP-Hib), for intramuscular use 90748- Hepatitis B and Hemophilus influenza b vaccine (HepB-Hib), for intramuscular use 99211- office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient, which may not require the presence of a physician. usually, the presenting problems are minimal. typically 5 minutes are spent performing or supervising procedure a. 90721 b. 90720, 90471 c. 90700, 90748, 99211 d. 90471, 90721 - Correct answer-d. 90471, 90721 a patient with lung cancer and bone metastasis is seen for complex treatment planning by a radiation oncologist 77236- therapeutic radiology treatment planning; complex 77290- therapeutic radiology simulation-aided field setting; complex 77315- teletherapy, isodose plan (whether hand or computer calculated); complex (mantle or inverted Y, tangential ports, the use of wedges, compensators, complex blocking, rotational beam, or special beam considerations) 77334- treatment devices, design and construction; complex(irregular blocks, special shields, compensators, wedges, molds or casts) a. 77315 b. 77263 c. 77290 d. 7734 - Correct answer-b. 77263 a 4-year-old had a repair of an incarcerated inguinal hernia. this is the first time this child had been treated for this condition 49496- repair initial inguinal hernia full-term infant, under age 6 months, or preterm infant over 50 weeks' post 49501- repair initial inguinal hernia, age 6 months to under 5 years, with or without hydrocelectomy; incarcerated or strangulated 49521- repair recurrent inguinal hernia, any age; incarcerated or strangulated 49553- repair initial femoral hernia, any age; incarcerated or strangulated a. 49553 b. 49496 c. 49521 d. 49501 - Correct answer-d. 49501 a quantitative drug assay was performed for a patient to determine