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RSK 2601 TEST BANK ENTERPRISE RISK MANAGEMENT ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

RSK 2601 TEST BANK ENTERPRISE RISK MANAGEMENT ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS( A GRADED ALREADY)

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2024/2025

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RSK 2601 TEST BANK ENTERPRISE
RISK MANAGEMENT
1. What is the primary objective of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)?
A) To eliminate all risks within an organization
B) To enhance organizational performance by identifying and managing risks
C) To identify only financial risks in an organization
D) To transfer all risks to insurance companies
Answer: B) To enhance organizational performance by identifying and managing risks
2. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of implementing an ERM framework?
A) Improved decision-making processes
B) Increased compliance with regulations
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RSK 2601 TEST BANK ENTERPRISE

RISK MANAGEMENT

  1. What is the primary objective of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? A) To eliminate all risks within an organization B) To enhance organizational performance by identifying and managing risks C) To identify only financial risks in an organization D) To transfer all risks to insurance companies Answer: B) To enhance organizational performance by identifying and managing risks
  2. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of implementing an ERM framework? A) Improved decision-making processes B) Increased compliance with regulations

C) Elimination of all business risks D) Enhanced ability to meet strategic objectives Answer: C) Elimination of all business risks

  1. In the context of ERM, what is a "risk appetite"? A) The total amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives B) The strategies used to avoid risks at all costs C) The processes used to transfer risks to third parties D) The total number of risks an organization faces Answer: A) The total amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives
  2. Which of the following is a key component of an ERM framework? A) Risk retention B) Risk identification C) Risk control D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above
  3. What role does the board of directors play in ERM? A) Setting the organization’s risk appetite B) Identifying all operational risks C) Implementing risk controls at the operational level D) Reporting risks to shareholders Answer: A) Setting the organization’s risk appetite
  4. Which of the following is considered an operational risk? A) Fluctuations in exchange rates B) Equipment failure C) Changes in tax laws D) Loss of intellectual property

D) A financial reporting standard Answer: C) A widely used framework for designing, implementing, and monitoring enterprise risk management processes11. What is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk in ERM? A) Inherent risk is the risk remaining after controls, while residual risk is the risk without any controls. B) Residual risk is the risk that exists before controls, while inherent risk is the risk after controls are applied. C) Inherent risk is the risk before any control measures, while residual risk is the risk that remains after controls have been applied. D) Both are the same and interchangeable terms in risk management. Answer: C) Inherent risk is the risk before any control measures, while residual risk is the risk that remains after controls have been applied.

  1. Which of the following is a qualitative method of risk assessment? A) Sensitivity analysis B) Monte Carlo simulation C) Risk mapping D) Value-at-risk (VaR) analysis Answer: C) Risk mapping
  2. A successful ERM framework relies on: A) A well-defined risk culture and risk governance B) Ad-hoc risk management processes C) Limiting risk discussions to senior management D) Isolating risk management from business strategy Answer: A) A well-defined risk culture and risk governance
  3. In which phase of the ERM process are potential risks identified? A) Risk assessment B) Risk mitigation C) Risk identification

D) Risk communication Answer: C) Risk identification

  1. What is the purpose of risk tolerance in an ERM framework? A) To define the maximum amount of risk an organization can completely avoid B) To provide guidance on the acceptable level of variation from the organization’s objectives C) To ensure that all risks are transferred to third parties D) To determine the number of risks that can be ignored Answer: B) To provide guidance on the acceptable level of variation from the organization’s objectives
  2. What type of risk is associated with changes in interest rates affecting a company’s profits? A) Operational risk B) Financial risk C) Reputational risk D) Strategic risk Answer: B) Financial risk
  3. Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation? A) Avoiding a risky investment B) Reducing the probability or impact of a risk event C) Accepting the risk without any further action D) Ignoring the risk until it materializes Answer: B) Reducing the probability or impact of a risk event
  4. What is a risk register in the context of ERM? A) A record of all identified risks, their assessment, and management actions B) A financial statement used to measure risk appetite C) A legal document outlining compliance with regulations D) A tool to prioritize only financial risks

Answer: B) They provide independent assurance on the effectiveness of the ERM framework

  1. The process of risk monitoring in ERM is aimed at: A) Documenting risks for regulatory purposes B) Ensuring that risk management strategies are effectively addressing identified risks C) Avoiding the impact of new risks D) Identifying risk owners within each department Answer: B) Ensuring that risk management strategies are effectively addressing identified risks
  2. What is the primary purpose of risk communication in ERM? A) To inform stakeholders about the potential benefits of risky projects B) To ensure that relevant information about risks is shared throughout the organization and with stakeholders C) To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements D) To limit the discussion of risks to the executive team Answer: B) To ensure that relevant information about risks is shared throughout the organization and with stakeholders25. Which of the following is considered a strategic benefit of adopting an ERM framework? A) Minimizing financial losses from operational risks B) Creating a competitive advantage by anticipating and managing risks C) Reducing the cost of compliance with regulations D) Lowering insurance premiums Answer: B) Creating a competitive advantage by anticipating and managing risks
  3. In ERM, what is the purpose of risk aggregation? A) To combine risks from different categories to get a holistic view of overall risk exposure B) To divide risks into smaller components for easier management

C) To transfer risks to external parties D) To eliminate low-priority risks from the risk register Answer: A) To combine risks from different categories to get a holistic view of overall risk exposure

  1. What is the main objective of key risk indicators (KRIs) in ERM? A) To assess the performance of risk managers B) To provide early warning signals of increasing risk exposure C) To track financial losses from past risks D) To ensure compliance with regulatory standards Answer: B) To provide early warning signals of increasing risk exposure
  2. In the COSO ERM framework, which component focuses on aligning risk management with strategy and objectives? A) Risk response B) Governance and culture C) Strategy and objective-setting D) Performance management Answer: C) Strategy and objective-setting
  3. How does ERM contribute to sustainable business practices? A) By focusing only on financial risks B) By ensuring short-term profits are maximized at all costs C) By integrating risk management into strategic decision-making, thus supporting long-term organizational success D) By transferring all risks to third parties to avoid potential losses Answer: C) By integrating risk management into strategic decision-making, thus supporting long-term organizational success
  4. Which of the following is an example of a compliance risk? A) A lawsuit filed against the company for violating environmental regulations B) A hacker gaining unauthorized access to sensitive customer data

A) Increased profitability within the first quarter of implementation B) Lack of support from senior leadership C) Reduced regulatory scrutiny D) Elimination of all operational risks Answer: B) Lack of support from senior leadership

  1. How does the concept of "risk velocity" impact ERM decisions? A) It refers to the speed at which a risk event escalates and impacts the organization B) It measures the probability of a risk occurring C) It is the frequency with which risk assessments are conducted D) It tracks how quickly an organization can recover from a risk event Answer: A) It refers to the speed at which a risk event escalates and impacts the organization
  2. What is the primary goal of risk retention in ERM? A) To reduce the likelihood of risk events occurring B) To accept a risk and allocate resources for managing the potential consequences C) To eliminate the risk entirely D) To transfer the risk to another party Answer: B) To accept a risk and allocate resources for managing the potential consequences
  3. Which of the following is a financial benefit of ERM? A) Improved forecasting of revenue and costs through better risk visibility B) Reduced employee turnover rates C) Enhanced customer satisfaction D) Increased ability to avoid operational risks Answer: A) Improved forecasting of revenue and costs through better risk visibility
  4. What is the role of external auditors in the ERM process? A) To establish the organization's risk appetite

B) To provide assurance on the accuracy and effectiveness of risk management practices C) To manage operational risks within the organization D) To make strategic risk management decisions for the company Answer: B) To provide assurance on the accuracy and effectiveness of risk management practices

  1. Why is it important for an organization to define its risk appetite? A) It ensures that all risks are eliminated B) It guides decision-making by defining the level of risk the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives C) It allows the organization to ignore minor risks D) It helps in increasing the number of risks the organization is willing to face Answer: B) It guides decision-making by defining the level of risk the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives
  2. What is a "risk event" in the context of ERM? A) An activity that reduces the impact of a potential risk B) An occurrence that leads to potential loss or disruption to the organization’s objectives C) An initiative to increase organizational risk-taking D) A meeting held to discuss potential risks in the future Answer: B) An occurrence that leads to potential loss or disruption to the organization’s objectives
  3. What is the role of risk management policies within an ERM framework? A) To outline the organization's risk transfer strategies B) To define how the organization will identify, assess, and manage risks consistently C) To eliminate all risks from business processes D) To determine the financial impact of risk events Answer: B) To define how the organization will identify, assess, and manage risks consistently
  1. Which of the following risks is most likely to be categorized as an external risk in ERM? A) Poor supply chain management B) Changes in government regulations affecting the industry C) Inefficient use of company resources D) Employee errors in data entry Answer: B) Changes in government regulations affecting the industry
  2. What does risk mitigation in ERM aim to achieve? A) The complete avoidance of all risks B) A reduction in the likelihood or impact of a risk event on the organization C) The transfer of all risks to external parties D) The identification of new risks Answer: B) A reduction in the likelihood or impact of a risk event on the organization
  3. Which of the following best defines risk escalation in the context of ERM? A) A process where a risk is assessed at higher organizational levels due to its potential impact B) A strategy to mitigate low-priority risks C) A method of eliminating risks through outsourcing D) A procedure for increasing an organization’s risk appetite Answer: A) A process where a risk is assessed at higher organizational levels due to its potential impact
  4. In the context of ERM, what is meant by "risk capacity"? A) The maximum amount of risk that an organization can withstand without severe consequences B) The process of allocating financial resources to manage risks C) The total number of risks an organization can manage simultaneously D) The willingness of an organization to accept risks to achieve its objectives

Answer: A) The maximum amount of risk that an organization can withstand without severe consequences

  1. What is the purpose of performing a "risk assessment" in ERM? A) To estimate the cost of transferring risks to third parties B) To systematically evaluate the likelihood and impact of identified risks C) To document all risks that have been eliminated D) To ensure compliance with industry regulations Answer: B) To systematically evaluate the likelihood and impact of identified risks
  2. Which of the following is an example of risk avoidance in ERM? A) Deciding not to enter a new market due to high political instability B) Purchasing insurance to cover potential losses C) Implementing security measures to reduce the impact of cyber-attacks D) Transferring production operations to a third-party supplier Answer: A) Deciding not to enter a new market due to high political instability
  3. What is the main focus of operational risk management within an ERM framework? A) Addressing strategic risks related to market competition B) Managing risks related to the day-to-day operations of the organization C) Ensuring that all financial risks are eliminated D) Transferring all operational risks to third parties Answer: B) Managing risks related to the day-to-day operations of the organization
  4. Which of the following techniques is used to quantify risks in an ERM framework? A) Risk mapping B) Monte Carlo simulation C) SWOT analysis D) Risk communication Answer: B) Monte Carlo simulation

C) The organization's ability to transfer risks to external parties D) The number of risks an organization has successfully mitigated Answer: A) The level of sophistication and integration of risk management practices within an organization

  1. What is the relationship between risk and reward in ERM? A) Higher risks always lead to higher rewards B) Higher risks generally have the potential for higher rewards, but also greater losses C) Lower risks lead to better rewards D) There is no relationship between risk and reward Answer: B) Higher risks generally have the potential for higher rewards, but also greater losses
  2. Which of the following is a key benefit of embedding ERM into the strategic planning process? A) Reducing the need for risk assessments B) Aligning risk management with organizational objectives to ensure long-term success C) Eliminating all potential risks from strategic decisions D) Ensuring that all risks are outsourced to third parties Answer: B) Aligning risk management with organizational objectives to ensure long- term success
  3. In ERM, what does "risk monitoring" involve? A) Tracking the effectiveness of risk responses and identifying new risks B) Identifying risks that are no longer relevant to the organization C) Documenting the outcomes of risk transfer strategies D) Measuring the financial impact of past risk events Answer: A) Tracking the effectiveness of risk responses and identifying new risks61. In ERM, which of the following is the primary purpose of risk communication? A) To ensure only top management is aware of risks

B) To share risk-related information across the organization to improve decision- making and foster a risk-aware culture C) To communicate financial risks to external stakeholders D) To eliminate low-priority risks from the risk register Answer: B) To share risk-related information across the organization to improve decision-making and foster a risk-aware culture

  1. Which of the following is a common method for identifying risks in an ERM framework? A) Scenario analysis B) Profit forecasting C) Market analysis D) Investment appraisal Answer: A) Scenario analysis
  2. What is the primary objective of risk categorization in ERM? A) To prioritize high-reward risks B) To classify risks into different types (e.g., strategic, operational, financial) to ensure a structured approach to risk management C) To eliminate risks from certain categories D) To transfer risks to other organizations Answer: B) To classify risks into different types (e.g., strategic, operational, financial) to ensure a structured approach to risk management
  3. Which of the following is an advantage of adopting an ERM framework? A) It guarantees complete risk elimination B) It provides a holistic view of risks across the organization, enhancing decision- making and aligning with strategic objectives C) It increases the number of risks the organization faces D) It focuses only on financial risks Answer: B) It provides a holistic view of risks across the organization, enhancing decision-making and aligning with strategic objectives
  1. How does an ERM framework help an organization in managing reputational risks? A) By eliminating all external risks B) By identifying, assessing, and responding to potential risks that could negatively impact the organization's brand and public perception C) By focusing only on financial risks that affect profitability D) By outsourcing reputation management to a third party Answer: B) By identifying, assessing, and responding to potential risks that could negatively impact the organization's brand and public perception
  2. What is the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance in an ERM context? A) Risk appetite defines the general level of risk an organization is willing to accept, while risk tolerance is the acceptable variation within this level B) Risk tolerance is always higher than risk appetite C) Risk appetite refers to the specific risks the organization is unwilling to accept, while risk tolerance is unrelated D) Risk tolerance eliminates the need for a defined risk appetite Answer: A) Risk appetite defines the general level of risk an organization is willing to accept, while risk tolerance is the acceptable variation within this level
  3. Which of the following tools is commonly used to assess the potential impact of risk events on organizational objectives? A) SWOT analysis B) Risk register C) Business continuity plan D) Impact analysis Answer: D) Impact analysis
  4. What is the purpose of conducting a "risk audit" in an ERM framework? A) To eliminate all identified risks

B) To provide an independent evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization's risk management processes C) To assess the financial impact of past risk events D) To increase the organization’s risk-taking capabilities Answer: B) To provide an independent evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization's risk management processes

  1. Which of the following is a common challenge organizations face when implementing ERM? A) Lack of alignment between risk management activities and organizational objectives B) Excessive risk-taking by employees C) The elimination of all external risks D) Over-communication of risks to stakeholders Answer: A) Lack of alignment between risk management activities and organizational objectives
  2. In ERM, what is the primary focus of business continuity planning (BCP)? A) To manage long-term strategic risks B) To ensure the organization can continue operations in the event of a disruption or risk event C) To transfer financial risks to insurance providers D) To increase the organization's risk-taking capacity Answer: B) To ensure the organization can continue operations in the event of a disruption or risk event
  3. Which of the following best describes risk reporting in an ERM framework? A) The process of identifying risks within the organization B) The systematic documentation and communication of risk information to stakeholders C) The final stage of risk elimination D) The process of transferring risks to external auditors