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SCI 225 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2024/2025 Latest Question And Answer Nightingale College Verified Exam (Answered)
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A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What is the nurse's best response? The symptom of polyuria in diabetes mellitus (DM) is caused by: a. a reduced ADH response caused by insulin deficiency. b. the loss of protein across the glomerular membrane. c. the production of ketones. d. increased glucose in the urine. d. increased glucose in the urine. The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) involves: a. autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells b. production of antibodies against alpha cells. c. type I hypersensitivity against pancreatic mast cells. d. insulin resistance in cellular receptors.
a. autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells Which is the appropriate method for diagnosis of type 1 diabetes? a. Measuring urine output b. Evaluating fasting plasma glucose levels c. Performing a battery of genetic tests d. The presence of symptoms is the only definitive method. b. Evaluating fasting plasma glucose levels Which of the following statements indicates that the nurse needs more teaching? Hyperglycemia can lead to chronic complications of diabetes through: a. activation of protein kinase C b. induction of the polyol pathway c. glycosylation d. suppression of oxidative stress d. suppression of oxidative stress
A patient has acute leukemia. A nurse recalls the cell most affected by this disease is a: a. mature cell. b. blast cell. c. differentiated cell. d. hypochromic cell. b. blast cell. Which laboratory result will be elevated in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Platelets b. Fibrin degradation products c. Clotting factors d. Activated protein C b. Fibrin degradation products A nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC). Which laboratory test should the nurse ask the primary care provider to order? a. Urinalysis b. D-dimer c. Arterial blood gases d. Potassium b. D-dimer A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which condition is a priority to assess? a. Pulmonary infarction b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Pulmonary edema d. Pulmonary embolism d. Pulmonary embolism
for the tumor masses? a. lung b. brain c. bones d. liver c. bones A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient? a. Sodium levels b. Urine analysis c. Lymphocyte counts d. Schilling test c. Lymphocyte counts A patient has a "shift to the left" or "left shift." Which other term can the nurse use to
describe this finding? a. Burkitt lymphoma b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation c. anemia d. Leukemoid reaction d. Leukemoid reaction If a patient has secondary hypertension, the nurse realizes that the patient has an abnormal blood pressure caused by: a. elevated levels of LDL. b. high sodium intake. c. genetics d. an underlying disease. d. an underlying disease. A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelial injury will the nurse observe written in the history?
a. renal retention of sodium and water. b. renal excretion of sodium without water retention. c. renal retention of water without sodium retention. d. renal excretion of water without sodium retention. c. renal retention of water without sodium retention. A patient has thyroid carcinoma. Which of the following will the nurse find on assessment? a. Small thyroid nodule b. Elevated T3 and T c. Large, diffuse goiter d. Thyroid gland atrophy a. Small thyroid nodule A patient with Graves disease has subcutaneous swelling of the anterior leg. Which term should the nurse document on the chart? a. Papilledema
b. Pretibial myxedema c. Diplopia d. Acropachy b. Pretibial myxedema A student nurse asks the nurse what causes acromegaly. The nurse should explain that acromegaly is caused by abnormal increases of: a. prolactin. b. growth hormone. c. insulin. d. glucocorticoids. b. growth hormone. A nurse is asked what causes Prinzmetal angina. How should the nurse respond? Prinzmetal angina is caused by: a. blood clots in the coronary artery.
d. a low-potassium diet. b. advanced age. When conducting a physical assessment of a patient during an acute asthma episode, the nurse would expect to observe: a. paralysis of accessory breathing muscles. b. bradypnea. c. pulsus paradoxus. d. eupnea. c. pulsus paradoxus. A patient asks the nurse what is most closely associated with the development of lung cancer? How should the nurse respond? a. Excessive alcohol drinking b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. Cigarette smoking
d. Endocrine disorders c. Cigarette smoking A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis? a. D-dimer levels b. Red blood cell count c. Potassium levels d. IgE count a. D-dimer levels Underlying the pathophysiology of ARDS is massive pulmonary: a. hyperventilation. b. inflammation. c. high V/Q ratio.
b. HIV neuropathy A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion? a. Autonomic hyperreflexia b. Spinal shock c. Degenerative disk disease d. Low back pain b. Spinal shock A patient with a spinal cord injury (T6 level) reports a headache. The patient's blood pressure is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating. Which intervention is most appropriate? a. Prepare the patient for surgery. b. Administer pain medication for headache. c. Start CPR.
d. Check the patient's bladder. d. Check the patient's bladder. Which of the following may cause an attack or an exacerbation of symptoms for a patient with multiple sclerosis? a. Cool environment b. Administration of corticosteroids c. Increased calcium levels d. Decreased stress levels c. Increased calcium levels While reviewing a patient's health history, which finding will most alert the nurse to the possible development of a chronic subdural hematoma? a. Peripheral nerve trauma b. Brain cancer c. Prior brain atrophy d. Meningitis
d. During the middle of menses a. At or before the onset of menses Benign ovarian cysts are classified as: a. subserous, submucous, or intramural. b. follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid. c. hyperplastic, atrophic, or functional. d. stage I, II, III or IV. b. follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid. The most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer is: a. older age. b. smoking. c. low-fat diet. d. urethral stricture. a. older age.
A patient has a cystocele. What other condition should the nurse assess for in this patient? a. Stress incontinence b. Significant problems defecating c. The descent of the rectum into the vaginal canal d. Infertility a. Stress incontinence A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of duodenal ulcers. Which information should the nurse include? a. Chronic inflammation inhibits the proton pumps in the gastric lining to decreased acid levels. b. The presence of bacteria in the stomach causes the pyloric sphincter to open slowly. c. H. pylori c. H. pylori