Download SCI225 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM 2025 LATEST PRACTICE QUESTION WITH ANSWERS (50 Q&A) and more Exercises Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity!
SCI225 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM 2025
LATEST PRACTICE QUESTION WITH ANSWERS (
QUESTIONS) NIGHTINGALE COLLEGE
When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of: A. autoimmunity B. alloimmunity C. homoimmunity D. alleimmunity SLE is the most common, complex, and serious of the autoimmune disorders. SLE is not identified as alloimmune, homoimmune, or alleimmune. When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is: A. urticaria B. hives C. anaphylaxis D. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) The most rapid and severe immediate hypersensitivity type I reaction is anaphylaxis.
Urticaria, or hives, is a dermal (skin) manifestation of allergic reactions. Hives and urticaria are similar responses. ADCC is a mechanism that involves natural killer (NK) cells. Antibodies on the target cell are recognized by Fc receptors on the NK cells, which release toxic substances that destroy the target cell. A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give? A. Pneumonia and lung cancer B. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer C. Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer D. Hypercholesterolemia and leukemia Individuals with a 10+ year history of ulcerative colitis have a 30-fold increase in developing colon cancer. There is no relationship between pneumonia and lung cancer; between prostatic hypertrophy and cancer of the prostate; and between hypercholesterolemia and leukemia. A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient? A. B-cell lymphoma B. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Anaplasia C. Pleomorphic D. Metastasis Anaplasia, not autonomy, is the loss of differentiation. The term pleomorphic refers to a marked variability of size and shape. A malignant tumor has the ability to spread far beyond the tissue of origin by the process of metastasis. A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely? A. Lymphoma B. Adenoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Leukemia Basal cell carcinoma is related to UV radiation primarily from the sun. Neither lymphoma, adenoma, nor leukemia is related to sunbathing. A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L. Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water? A. Liver B. Skin C. Colon
D. Kidney Evidence indicates an increased risk of bladder, skin, and lung cancers following consumption of water with high levels of arsenic. Evidence for cancers of the liver, colon, and kidney is weaker following consumption of water with high levels of arsenic. Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as: A. bystander effects. B. lethal mutation. C. delayed reproductive death. D. genetic instability. The directly irradiated cells can lead to genetic effects in the so-called bystander cells or * innocent cells. This is termed bystander effects. Lethal mutation and delayed reproductive death are similar phenomenons and are not related to bystander effects. Genetic instability is related to chromosomal instability. A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution. How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and: A. fireplace wood smoke
More than 70% of children diagnosed with cancer are cured. Some of the factors leading to improved cure rates in pediatric oncology include the use of combination chemotherapy or multimodal treatment for solid childhood tumors and improvements in nursing and supportive care. A partial explanation for the relative lack of progress in curing the adolescent population at the same rate as that realized in the younger pediatric population is the lack of participation in clinical trials. While survivors of childhood cancer are at increased risk of developing a second malignancy later in life, it is not as frequent as 70%. A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor. This disease is a tumor of the: A. kidney B. brain C bone marrow D. liver Wilms tumor is a tumor found in the kidney, not the brain, the bone marrow, or the liver. A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer? A. Rb gene mutation B. Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
C. Exposure to solvents D. Exposure to radiation The patient with adenocarcinoma of the vagina most likely experienced prenatal exposure to DES, not an Rb gene mutation or exposure to solvents or radiation. A child suffers from sudden apparent arousals in which she expresses intense fear or other emotion. Her mother reports that she seems to wake screaming, but that she is difficult to waken completely. The child most likely suffers from: A. night terrors B. parasomnia. C. somnambulism D. enuresis episodes Night terrors are characterized by sudden apparent arousals in which the child expresses intense fear or emotion. Parasomnia is unusual behaviors during sleep. Somnambulism is sleep-walking. Enuresis episodes are bed-wetting. Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in mass? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Muscular dystrophy D. Klinefelter syndrome
A polypoid cell is one in which a euploid cell has more than 23 pairs of chromosomes. A diploid cell is when the somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosome in 23 pairs. A euploid is a cell with multiples of a normal number of chromosomes. A haploid cell has only one member of each chromosome pair, for a total of 23 chromosomes. Biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein which process is the biologist describing? A. Termination B. Transcription C. Translocation D. Translation In translation, RNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide, interacting with transfer RNA (tRNA), a cloverleaf-shaped strand of about 80 nucleotides. Termination does not involve synthesis of protein. Transcription is the process by which DNA specifies a sequence of messenger RNA (mRNA). Translocation is the interchange of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes. A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in the development of swelling? A. Increased ATP B. Chloride movement out of the cell
C. Na+ movement into the cell D. Decreased oncotic pressure. When sodium and water enter the cell freely, cellular swelling, as well as early dilation of the endoplasmic reticulum, results. Decreased ATP would lead to swelling. Chloride movement out of the cell would affect muscle contraction but does not lead to swelling. Increased oncotic pressure would not affect swelling. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term with the nurse used to define this process? A. Adaption B. Calcification C. Apoptosis D. Necrosis Necrosis is the sum of cellular changes after local cell death. Cellular adaptation is a reversible, structural, or functional response to both normal or physiologic conditions and adverse or pathologic conditions. Calcification is an accumulation of calcium salts. Apoptosis is an active process of cellular self-destruction. A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis C. If the cancerous region of the liver is removed, the remaining cells would undergo:
Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system? A. Protein/fat B. Carbonic acid bicarbonate C. Sodium/potassium D. Amylase/ albumin The carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer pair operates in both the lung and the kidney and is a major extracellular buffer. Protein and fat are nutrients, not related to the buffering system. Sodium and potassium are electrolytes for fluid and electrolyte balance, not the major plasma buffering system for acid-base balance. Amylase is a carbohydrate enzyme, and albumin is a protein; neither is a buffering system. A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Increased capillary oncotic pressure. B. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure. C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure. D. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure would facilitate increased movement from the capillary to the interstitial space, leading to edema. Increased capillary (plasma) oncotic pressure attracts water from the interstitial space back into the capillary. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure would keep water in the capillary. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure would facilitate increased water movement from the interstitlal space into the capillary. A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, short of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased COz, and norr bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of: A. respiratory alkalosis. B. metabolic acidosis. C. respiratory acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis A decreased pH indicates acidosis. With increased COz, it is respiratory acidosis. The bicarbonate is normal, so it cannot be metabolic acidosis. A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water? A. 5 L B. 10 L C. 28 L
AIDS is an acquired dysfunction of the immune system caused by a retrovirus (HIV) that infects and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes (T-helper cells). HIV infection begins when a virion binds to CD4, not a B cell. Infection requires a host cell receptor. The cell remains dormant but does not die. While planning care for infants, which principles should the nurse remember? Infants have problems with thermoregulation because they: (Select all that apply.) A. cannot conserve heat. B. do not shiver. rarely sweat. C. have decreased metabolic rates. D. have excess subcutaneous fat. Infants cannot conserve heat; thus, they have a problem with thermoregulation because of their small size. Infants are unable to shiver, do have the ability to sweat, have an increased metabolic rate, and have little subcutaneous fat. When the nurse is discussing the patient's cyclical temperature fluctuation occurring on a daily basis, what term should the nurse use? A. Thermogenesis cycle
B. Thermoconductive phases C. Adaptive pattern D. Circadian rhythm Temperature fluctuation is related to circadian rhythm, not the thermogenesis cycle, thermoconductive phases, or adaptive patterns. A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than: A. 1 month. B. 3-6 months. C. 1 year. D. 2-3 years. Chronic or persistent pain has been defined as lasting for more than 3-6 months. A patient experiences a severe head injury hitting a tree while riding a motorcycle. Breathing becomes deep and rapid but with normal pattern. What term should the nurse use for this condition? A. Gasping B. Ataxic breathing C. Apneusis D. Central neurogenic hyperventilation
A. Acute confusional state B. Echolalia C. Dementia D. Dysphagia Delirium and the inability to concentrate are characteristics of acute confusional state. Echolalia is the repeating of words and phrases. Dementia is characterized by loss of recent and remote memory. Dysphagia is difficulty speaking. An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient? A. Metabolic edema B. Interstitial edema C. Vasogenic edema D. Ischemic edema An immediate concern for the infant with noncommunicating hydrocephalus is interstitial edema. Neither metabolic, vasogenic, nor ischemic edema is observed as a result of noncommunicating hydrocephalus. An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate priority concern for this patient?
Metabolic edema Interstitial edema Vasogenic edema Ischemic edema An immediate concern for the infant with noncommunicating hydrocephalus is interstitial edema. Neither metabolic, vasogenic, nor ischemic edema is observed as a result of noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is the main source of bleeding in extradural (epidural) hematomas? A. Arterial B. Venous C. Capillary D. Sinus An artery is the source of bleeding in 85% of extradural hematomas. The bleeding associated with an extradural hematoma is not a result of damage to a vein, a capillary, or a sinus. A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain?
