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SNHD EMT PARAMEDIC PROTOCOL
EXAM TEST BANK 2024 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | PROFESSOR VERIFIED |
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When should patient care be rendered? -----CORRECT ANSWER------------ --in route to a definitive treatment facility (pg. 5) A remote outpatient emergency department can treat obstetric patients under how many weeks gestation? -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- 20 weeks (pg 131) For a patient to be transported to an approved alcohol and drug abuse facility, the respiratory rate must be between what range? -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- 12 - 20 (Page 128) A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their respiratory rate is between what range? -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- 10 - 20 (pg. 135) True or False, All drowning patients should be transported for evaluation because of the potential for worsening over the next several hours. ----- CORRECT ANSWER--------------True (page 36)
What should happen to orogastric or nasogastric tubes during transfer? ----
- CORRECT ANSWER--------------Left in place, Closed off, Set to suction (pg
A patient with a diastolic blood pressure between what range may be placed in an ER waiting room? -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- 60 - 100 (pg. 12) everything that applys to a moderate allergic reaction. -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------Involve skin disorders, May include some respiratory involvement, like wheezing, Patient maintains good tidal volume and air exchange (pg 18.) Which of the following constitute an approved SNHD DNR? -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------Form, Wallet Card, Medallion (pg 121) True or false, Smoldering clothing should be removed from a patient who was burned. -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------True (pg 25) which of the following describes heat exhaustion? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------elevated body temp cool, moist skin weakness anxious tachypnea
the administration of nitroglycerin is contraindicated for any patient who has used erectile dysfunction medications within the last 24 hours ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------false what applies for a mild allergic reaction ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- skin rashes, itchy sensations, hives, no respiratory involvement what type of patients should ambulance attendants transfer? ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------only those whose therapy required during transfer lies within the ambulance attendants capabilities. when can telephone contact to a receiving facility be used? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------when it is routed via a recorded phone patch through the fire alarm office for a patient to be transported to an approved alcohol and drug abuse facility, the diastolic blood pressure must be between what range? ------ CORRECT ANSWER---------- 60 - 100 The sunrise hospital catmint area is for all adult trauma calls and pediatric step 3 trauma calls that meet the trauma field triage criteria protocol and occur within the geographical area border by paradise road to the west, Sahara avenue to the north, sunset road to the south, and the country line to the east, are to be transported to sunrise hospital and medical center and the medical directions for the treatment of the patient must originate at the centre ------CORRECT ANSWER----------true
what is the treatment plan for heat cramps? ------CORRECT ANSWER------ ----PO fluids as tolerated, monitor and reassess, continue general patient care a patient with a systolic blood pressure between what ranges may br places in an ER waiting room? ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- 100 - 180 which are approved stroke centers? ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- Centennial Hills Hospital, Desert spings, Mountain View, southern hills, spring valley. st. rose Martin. st rose siena, Summerlin, valley. sunrise, UMC orthopedic devices cannot be left in place during interfacility transfer ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------false a DNR and POLST order shall be validated by confirming the patient's: -----
- CORRECT ANSWER----------name, age, condition of identification form when are backboards indicated? ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- extrication/patient movement postpartum eclampsia/pre-eclampsia commonly presents how long after childbirth? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------up to 48 hours for all other patients, telemetry reports shall include, at a minimum ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------attendant/vehicle identification, nature or call:
during spinal immobilization, tape, head straps, wedges, and head and/or neck support devices are not recommended ------CORRECT ANSWER------ ----true radio contact should be established for what patients? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------All trauma center patients, Code 3 returns, Need for telemetry physician, as indicated per protocol which of the following describes heat cramps? ------CORRECT ANSWER--- -------normal to elevated body temp, weakness, muscle cramping the Pediatric Patient Destination protocol is used for: ------CORRECT ANSWER----------patients less than 18 years of age when should defibrillation be attempted during a witnessed cardiac arrest? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------immediately what is the purpose of the protocol manual? ------CORRECT ANSWER------ ----provide guidance to all prehospital care providers and emergency department physicians within the Clark County EMS system what are possible causes of disruptive shock? ------CORRECT ANSWER--- -------sepsis, anaphylaxis, neurogenic, toxins
during cardiac arrest, how often are pulse checks preformed? ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------every 2 minutes a traction splint is indicated of which of the following patients? ------ CORRECT ANSWER----------isolated mid shaft femur fracture a patient with a systolic blood pressure between what ranges may be placed in an ER waiting room ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- 100 - 180 a patient on a legal psychiatric hold may be placed in the ER waiting roo, -- ----CORRECT ANSWER----------false how much does the posterior torso represent in an adult patient in the Rule of 9's ------CORRECT ANSWER----------18% patients placed on backboards for extrication or movements should not be moved to a soft mattress ------CORRECT ANSWER----------false what is often associated with submersion incidents? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------hypothermia what is a normal blood glucose reading in a newborn? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------40 mg/dl
which of the following describes heat exhaustion? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------elevated body temp, cool, most skin, weakness, anxious tachypnea what are possible causes of hypovolemic shock? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------hemorrhage, trauma, BI bleeding, ruptured aortic aneurysm, pregnancy related bleeding when should defibrillation be attempted during an unwitnessed cardiac arrest? ------CORRECT ANSWER----------after 2 minutes of CPR choose all that apply for a moderate allergic reaction ------CORRECT ANSWER----------involve skin disorders, may included some respiratory involvement, like wheezing, patient maintains good tidal volume and air exchange for a patient to be transported to an approved alcohol and drug abuse facility, the Glasgow coma score must be above what level? ------ CORRECT ANSWER---------- 14 how much does te anterior torso represent in an adult patient in the rule of 9's ------CORRECT ANSWER----------18% using the parkland burn formula, how much fluid is given over the first 8 hours. ------CORRECT ANSWER----------half
A patient with a pulse oximetry reading above what percentage may be placed in the ER waiting room? -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------94 (pg.
True or False, Patients are not to be transported on backboards (unless movement off the backboard would delay immediate transport of patients with life-threatening injuries or acute spinal injuries). -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------true (pg. 137) Orthopedic devices cannot be left in place during interfacility transfer. ----- CORRECT ANSWER--------------False (pg. 125) Describe a full thickness (3rd degree) burn. -----CORRECT ANSWER-------- ------Charred skin, Leathery skin, Painless (pg 26) A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their diastolic blood pressure is between what range? -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- 60 - 110 (pg 135) SOP. Medications Emergency Medical Technicians (EMT's) can provide. --- --CORRECT ANSWER--------------Acetylsalicylic Acid (aspirin) .Activated Charcoal .Bronchodilator Metered Dose Inhaler .Epinephrine Auto-injector. Glucose - oral. Nitroglycerin.
Dose: Adult.50 gm PO Pediatric. 1.0 gm/kg PO; dose 10 gm max. dose 50 gm. Contraindications: Altered mental status; ingestion of acids, Alkalis or petroleum distillates; inability to swallow; previous administration of an emetic. Adverse reactions: Nausea; vomiting Formulary. Bronchodilator Metered Dose Inhaler. -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- Class: Sympathomimetic. Action: Bronchodilator Dose: Adult Assist patient in administering his or her own bronchodilator metered dose inhaler exactly as prescribed. (Pediatric.Same as adult) Route: Inhalation. Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to the drug. Adverse reactions: tachycardia; palpitations; anxiousness; headache Formulary: EPINEPHRINE AUTO-INJECTOR -----CORRECT ANSWER---- ----------CLASS: Sympathomimetic. ACTION.:Bronchodilation; positive chronotrope; positive inotrope. DOSE. Adult. Assist patient with his or her own Epinephrine auto-injector. (Pediatric same as adult)ROUTE.IM. Formulary: EPINEPHRINE AUTO-INJECTOR cont.. -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------CONTRAINDICATIONS: Underlying cardiovascular
disease / angina; hypertension; pregnancy; patient over 40 years of age;hyperthyroidism ADVERSE REACTIONS: Palpitation due to tachycardia or ectopic beats may produce arrhythmia if cardiac disease present;elevation of blood pressure; headache; anxiousness. Formulary: NITROGLYCERIN -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------Assist pt with own NTG as prescribed; may repeat x 3 CLASS:vasodilator ACTION: Dilates systemic arteries and veins; reduces both preload and afterload. DOSE: Adult.See specific protocol.(PediatricSame) ROUTE: Sublingual spray or tablet. CONTRAINDICATIONS.Hypotension (do not administer if systolic pressure below 100 mmHg unless ordered by a physician);use of Viagra (Sildenafil) or similar medication within the past 24 hours or 48 hours for Tadalafil (Cialis);patients with demonstrated hypersensitivity to nitrates or nitrites. ADVERSE REACTIONS: Hypotension. NOI/ MOI ------- > S.T.A.R.T triage -----CORRECT ANSWER-------------- nature of illness/ mechanism of injury... start triage is a A procedure for quickly classifying injured patients according to the severity of their injuries and for treating those who are most severely injured first. (pg 11) General adult assessment: AIRWAY..you see signs of compromise or not protecting airway -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------ventilation management protocol (pg 71)
general adult assesment: LOC.. no pulse found cont... shockable rhythm --- --CORRECT ANSWER--------------is the rhythm shockable? Yes----> VF/VT .. defibrillate.. EMT will then continue CPR, AEMT will get vascular access ...if the rhythm is still shockable...... EMT: defib if prompted (AED) medic: defib EMT: contiunues cpr for 2 minutes Medic: EPINEPHRINE 1 mg IV/IO q 3-5 min ETT Administration requires 2 to 2.5 times the dose AEMT: Consider Extraglottic Airway Device Medic: Consider Endotracheal Intubation ..if the rhythm is still shockable...... EMT: defib if prompted medic: defib EMT: continues CPR for 2 minutes Medic: AMIODARONE 300 mg IV/IO; may repeat one dose of 150 mg if refractory after 5th shock; Address H's & T's ( repeat process from start ^^^ as long as rhythm is still shockable) (Pg 27) general adult assesment: LOC.. no pulse found cont... non shockable rhythm -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------medic: Asystole/PEA
Emt: Continue CPR for 2 min Aemt: Vascular Access medic: EPINEPHRINE 1 mg IV/IO q 3-5 min; ETT Administration requires 2 to 2.5 times the dose Aemt: Consider Extraglottic Airway Device Medic:Consider Endotracheal Intubation if rhythm becomes shockable Use VF/VT side as indicated ..... rhythm is still not shockable...... EMT: continue cpr for 2 minutes Medic: address h's and t's if rhythm becomes shockable Use VF/VT side as indicated (Pg 27) general adult assesment: circulation.... bleeding... -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------general trauma assessment protocol ( pg 13) general adult assesment: disability.. altered or confused -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------ams/ syncope protocol (pg 19) emt: blood glucose testing.. AEMT: vascular access if >60mg/dI medic put onto cardiac monitor..aemt Consider NS or LR 500 ml IV; may repeat up to 2000 ml If <60mg/dI emt: administer oral glucose
Pg 12 what are considered to be Normal vital signs for waiting room criteria? HR, RR, systolic/ diastolic, room air pulse oximetry, axo... -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------A. Heart rate 60 - 100 B. Respiratory rate 10 - 20 C. Systolic BP 100 - 180 D. Diastolic BP 60 - 110 E. Room air pulse ox >94% F. Alert and oriented x 4 Pg 12 where should stable patients be transported? -----CORRECT ANSWER----- ---------hospital of their choice or if there is no preference the closest facility. Pg 12 What is the Glascow Coma Scale used for? -----CORRECT ANSWER------- -------communicate/score/describe the LOC of a patient. 3 is lowest score, 15 is highest score when would you use the glascow coma scale? -----CORRECT ANSWER---- ----------during the 3rd step of the general adult trauma assessment (pg 13) Glascow Coma Scale scoring -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------- Eye: 4= open spontaneously; 3= open to speech; 2= open to pain; 1= no opening
5= oriented; 4= confused; 3= inapprop. words/random; 2= incomprehensible sounds; 1= no response
- Motor: 6= obeys commands; 5= localizes to pain; 4= withdraws from pain (pulls away); 3= flex. in response to pain (decorticate); 2= ext. in response to pain (decerebrate); 1= no response If a PT has a GCS <8 what is the next step? -----CORRECT ANSWER------- -------ventilation management protocol, BVM if 02 sat < or = to 94% (pg 13) What is one of the key roles for an AEMT during the general adult trauma assessment? -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------vascular access (pg 13) What are some things you are looking for during the secondary survery of the trauma assessment? what is the treatment? -----CORRECT ANSWER-- ------------paramedic: Suspected tension pneumothorax (needle thoracentesis) EMT:Sucking chest wound ( apply 3 sided occlusive dressing) EMT: Control active hemorrhage ( hemorrhage control) EMT: Obvious fractures (immobilize fractures; assess distal pulse) EMT/Paramedic: Suspected traumatic brain injury (EMT: raise head of bed 30 degrees while paramedic capnography- etcoz 35mmHg) EMT: Open wounds ( cover with gauze; wet trauma dressing for abdominal evisceration.) (Pg 13)
