



Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Community
Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts
Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users
Free resources
Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors
Multiple choice questions from an exam held during the spring semester '12 for bio 366, focusing on the characteristics, structures, and synthesis of dna and rna.
Typology: Exams
1 / 5
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!
1. Which of the following RNA characteristics is responsible for breakage of phosphodiester bonds under alkaline conditions? a. presence of uridine in RNA b. RNA is single-stranded c. RNA has few hydrogen bonds d. both the 2’ and 3’ positions of the ribose have a hydroxyl group e. the 2’ position of ribose lacks a hydroxyl group 2. Which of the following statements regarding DNA structure is incorrect? a. pyrimidine bases have a less complex ring structure than purines b. A•T base pairs have two hydrogen bonds c. B DNA duplex structure is a left-handed helix d. one turn of the B DNA duplex structure corresponds to ~10.5 base pairs e. B DNA duplex structure displays a major groove and a minor groove 3. Which of the following is a feature of DNA synthesis but not RNA synthesis? a. precursor nucleoside triphosphates are cleaved between the alpha and beta phosphates b. newly synthesized chains grow in the 5’ to 3’ direction c. duplex DNA requires melting at the site of synthesis d. thymidine is incorporated when the template base is adenine e. guanine is incorporated when the template base is cytidine 4. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic mRNAs but not prokaryotic mRNAs? a. 7-methylguanylate cap b. 5’ untranslated region c. 5’ triphosphate d. AUG start site for translation e. multiple genes translated independently 5. Which of the following correctly describes the core subunit composition of E. coli RNA polymerase? a. four identical subunits b. four non-identical subunits c. three identical subunits d. three non-identical subunits e. more than four subunits
6. Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases? a. covalent linking of a specific amino acid to the 3’ end of tRNAs b. covalent linking of a specific amino acid to the 5’ end of tRNAs c. linking two tRNAs at the peptidyl transferase site of the ribosome d. linking tRNA to eIF2-GTP e. linking tRNA anticodons to mRNA codons 7. Which of the following steps in eukaryotic mRNA translation specifically requires the ribosomal 40S subunit and not the fully assembled ribosome? a. ternary complex formation b. peptide bond formation c. binding to mRNA cap structure d. movement of tRNA from P to E site e. binding of release factors to A site 8. Which of the following statements regarding tRNA structures is false? a. tRNAs are generally 70 to 80 nt long b. the anticodon is found within a base-paired region c. many bases are modified by specialized enzymes following synthesis of tRNAs d. all tRNAs show a cloverleaf secondary structure e. stem structures involve fewer than ten uninterrupted base pairs 9. Why does DNA replication require RNA primers? a. DNA polymerase cannot use DNA chains as primers b. DNA polymerase is unstable unless bound to RNA c. DNA polymerase can only initiate chains on the leading strand d. DNA polymerase uses rNTPs more easily than dNTPs e. RNA polymerase but not DNA polymerase can initiate chain synthesis 10. Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication is false? a. more primers are required for lagging strand as opposed to leading strand synthesis b. DNA replication takes place bidirectionally from origins of replication c. eukaryotic Okazaki fragments are thousands of bases long d. replicating DNA polymerase have an associated 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity e. RNA primers are removed by a 5’ to 3’ exonuclease 11. Why can spontaneous deamination of 5-methyl cytosine in DNA lead to a mutation? a. breaks the DNA backbone and may cause a frame shift in a protein encoding gene b. causes a distortion in the duplex DNA and misincorporation of bases during replication c. changes original cytosine base to a thymine base and thus produces a T-G mismatch (SEE NOTE BELOW) d. changes original cytosine to a guanine base and thus produces a G-G mismatch e. deaminated 5-methyl cytosine is highly reactive and chemically modifies other DNA bases
17. Which of the following correctly describes the palindromic nature of restriction enzyme recognition sites? a. the size of the recognition site is an even number b. the same base is never found more than once in the same site c. the sequence of each strand in the site is the same when read 5’ to 3’ d. the site always starts and ends with bases that are complementary to each other e. the sequence on one strand is repeated 18. Which of the following correctly describes the nature of a polylinker region in a plasmid cloning vector? a. required for selection of transformed cells b. serves as origin of DNA replication c. contains multiple restriction enzyme sites found only once in the plasmid d. encodes genes required for replication in bacterial cells e. contains restriction enzymes sites protected by methylation 19. Which of the following steps in the construction of a cDNA library requires a terminal transferase enzyme? a. addition of poly(A) to mRNA b. addition of poly (G) to cDNA strand made by reverse transcriptase c. addition of EcoR1 linkers to cDNA d. protection of EcoR1 sites in cDNA e. cloning of DNA molecules into plasmid vector 20. Which of the following sequence elements in yeast shuttle plasmids ensures selection of cells that have been successfully transformed by a plasmid molecule? a. centromere sequence b. URA3 gene c. neomycin resistance gene d. autonomous replication sequence (ARS) e. promoter sequence 21. When you screen a yeast genomic library for functional complementation of temperature sensitive cdc-^ mutations, which of the following conditions indicates that a colony carries a plasmid encoding the corresponding wild type gene? a. growth at 23°C in the presence of uracil b. growth at 37°C in the absence of uracil” c. growth at 23°C in the absence of uracil d. growth at 23°C in the presence of kanamycin e. growth at 37°C following mating of a and cells
22. Why is the concentration of dideoxynucleotides kept low relative to deoxynucleotides when sequencing DNA by the Sanger method? a. to produce fragments that terminate at all positions b. to enable labeling of each base by a different fluorescent dye c. to prevent the polymerase from incorporating any deoxynucleotide d. to produce primers with the correct 3’ end e. to prevent the polymerase from making errors 23. If you have a purified protein with no knowledge of the DNA sequence that encodes it, and want to recover the gene from a cDNA library, which of the following do you need to determine first? a. what the promoter region is b. how big the protein is c. determine the DNA sequence flanking the gene d. determine a short stretch of amino acid sequence in the protein e. tag the protein with random oligonucleotides 24. Which of the following is responsible for restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) in the genomes of higher eukaryotes? a. nucleotide changes found only in the coding regions of genes b. presence or absence of introns c. duplicated genes d. presence of x-linked mutation e. loss or gain of a restriction enzyme site due to sequence variation between individuals 25. The primers used to make yeast gene disruption constructs contain which of the following sequences? a. start and end of the kanamycin resistance gene b. yeast origin of replication sequences c. ~20 nt-long sequences corresponding to those flanking the yeast target gene d. EcoR1 restriction sites e. a and c NOTE: YOU MUST HAND IN THE EXAM QUESTIONAIRE WITH YOUR SCANTRON AND MAKE SURE YOU HAVE YOUR NAME ON EACH PAGE NOTE: Correct choice C should have read “5-methyl cytosine” rather than “cytosine” to avoid any ambiguity. “Original cytosine base” intended to refer to the cytosine incorporared during replication before it gets methylated. Everyone will get credit for this question regardless of your answer.