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Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Which act allows children with disabilities appropriate education, transition services, assistive technology, and rehab counseling? - ansIndividuals with Disabilities Education Act What is a SMALL number of people with complementary skills who are equally commited to a common purpose, goals, and working approach known as? - ansreal team Participants in health care have combined widely shared human beliefs about health and illness into four major ethical principles. What obligation requires health care providers to help people in need? - ansbeneficence What is nonmaleficence? - ansthe duty to do no harm What is the process of aligning and developing the capacity of a team to create the results its members desire? - ansteam learning Which of the following is a barrier to independent living for the C4 spinal cord injured patient? - ansavailability of affordable, accessible housing Which method of paying health care providers shifts part of the financial risk to hospitals by paying a fixed amount based on admission diagnosis? - ansprospective payment Which christian sect maintains Saturday as the holy day? - ansseventh day adventist What would be the BEST approach for the rehab nurse with a new interest in political activism? - ansidentify one issue of interest and act on it What is included in the American with Disabilities Act of 1990? - ansmandates 24 hour relay services by telephone companies so that individuals with telecommunication devices for the deaf could communicate with those who do not have those devices Which team model is UNCOMMON in rehab practice? - ansmedical Which tool should be used in the nursing assessment of pressure ulcer risk? - ansBraden Scale Rebound occurs when an individual spends insufficient time in certain stages of sleep. For which of the following stages is rebound an IMPORTANT concept? - ansstage 4 Rebound occurs: - answhen an individual is deprived of Stage 4 sleep Which statement is incorporated in Orem's self care theory? - ansinvestigation/decision making where the pt. has control and input regarding activity Which nursing theorist views the person as a biological, symbolic, and social unit? - ansDorothea Orem Which spinal cord injury syndrome causes paralysis and loss of position sense on the same side as the injury and loss of pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side? - ansBrown-Sequard syndrome What are the two PRIMARY goals of the interdisciplinary team in pediatric rehabilitation? - ansprovision of care and self-maintenance
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Which level of wellness views rehabilitation activities and the monitoring of health care processes to prevent complications or further illness, injury or disability? - anstertiary prevention How does an independent living program support an individual with a disability? - ansallows pts. to remain in their own dwellings while offering support services Which techique allows the user to determine the volume of pts. required for a progam to be financially self-sufficient? - ansbreak-even analysis When comparing one facility's selected outcomes with those of another facility's outstanding outcomes this is considered which process? - ansbenchmarking Which strategy, when implemented prior to discharge, promotes communication, defines the roles of each party, clearly outlines expected outcomes, defines the limitations of care, and establishes home health care agency liability? - anshealth contract Which of the following defines impairment? - ansthe residual limitation that results from disease, injury, or a congenital defect Define handicap - ansthe interaction of a person with a disability with the environment Define disability - ansthe inability to perform some key life function Define functional limitation - ansthe loss of the ability to perform self-care tasks and is the result of an impairment Patients with which diagnoses would be likely to have restrictive lung disease? - anshigh level spinal cord injury Which theory did Bandura deveklop to guide the assessment of the individual's ability to promote health and reduce risk? - ansself-efficacy What is the role of an interdisciplinary team? - ansreach a common goal thru team meetings and go beyoud their respective disciplines What types of drugs would be MOST likely to cause male ejaculation and impotence problems? - ansantihypertensives, antispasmodics, calcium channel blockers, tranquilizers, anticonvulsants, alcohol, and analgesics Which nursing theorist views health as a value-laden term imposed by society? - ansMartha Rogers The major focus of King's nursing theory is: - ansgoal attainment through interaction Which ethical principle is exemplified by the rehab nurse who spends numerous hours in the preparation of a teaching plan for the pt, and future family caregivers? - ansfidelity What is an IMPORTANT condition that must be present for a team to be successful? - ansa commitment to a common purpose and specific goals Which member of the rehab team has the PRIMARY responsibility for assisting pts. in gaining skills for community reentry? - ansrecreational therapist
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
No response (Verbal Response) - ans Obeys Verbal Commands (Motor Response) - ans To localized pain (Motor Response) - ans Flexes and withdraws from pain (Motor Response) - ans Flexes abnormally (Decorticate Posturing) (Motor Response) - ans Extends abnormally (Decerebrate Posturing) (Motor Response) - ans No motor response (Flaccid Coma) (Motor Response) - ans What is the purpose of the Glascow Coma Scale? - ansto access for LOC What areas does the Glascow Coma Scale test? - anseye response, motor response, and verbal response A comatose client would receive what score? - ans7 or less Pupil response - anspupils < or = 8 is coma; Full consciousness receives what score? - ans Awake, alert, atentive, can follow commands - ansfull consciousness Drowsy state, Pt can awaken, but not completely to stimulation, may also follow commands but his responses may be slow and inattentive - ansLethargy Pt is difficult to arouse and needs constant stimulus to follow commands; may verbally respond to stimuli with a few words but drifts back to sleep when stimulus is removed - ansObtundation Pt arouses to vigorus and continuous stimulation which is typically painful in nature; may moan briefly but does not follow commands; only response may be withdrawal from the painful stimulus - ansStupor Does not respond to continuous or painful stimulus; no movement except for reflex actions and does not verbalize. - ansComa Mild brain injury - ansloss of concious <30min GCS 13- 15 negative neuroimaging moderate brain injury - ansGCS 9- 12 abn CT coma lasting <24hrs severe brain injury - ansLOC >days, months, years GCS< permanent residul deficits vegetative state - ansno distinct evidence of conscious awareness of self/environ eyes open spontaneously, SW, no intentional, purposeful, reproducible reponses to stimuli
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Lydia Hall - ansThree interlocking circles: person, body and disease Person Body and Disease in Halls theory - ansPerson is core, body is care, and disease is cure Lydia Hall - ansWho asserted that only wholly professional nursing care would hasten recovery? Lydia Hall - ansWho's view of health asserts that people behave according to feelings rather than knowledge? Lydia Hall - ansWho defined rehabilitation as the process of learning to live within limitations? Lydia Hall - ansWho asserted that setting goals for clients that do not reflect the clent's own goals is countertherapeutic? Lydia Hall - ansWho assets that nurses should focus teaching and learning on the client? Lydia Hall's theory - ansAspects of Nursing are Core, Care and Cure Imogene King - ansSystems Framework Theory is the personal, interpersonal and social systems Keystone to Imogene King's theory - ansMutuality achieved through perceptional congruence Imogene King - ansviews the person as an open system Imogene King - ansstates that a person has intrinsic worth Imogene King - ansdefines health as a dynamic life cycle Imogene King - anssees nursing as an interactive endeavor in which nurse and client share information in the nursing situation Imogene King - ansstates that the goal of nursing is to help individuals maintain their health so they can function in their roles Imogene King - ansbelieves that goal setting is not a one time event but rather an ongoing process Dorothea Orem - ansSelf Care AGency, Self Care Demands make up the Self Care Theory Dorothea Orem - ansViews health as a state of wholeness or integrity Dorothea Orem - ansTheorist who states that when self care demands exceed self care agency, nursing may intervene Dorothea Orem - ansDefines people outside the healthcare system upon whom the client may depend to meet self care demands as "dependent care agents" Dorothea Orem - ansTheorist that state that nurses form a supportive-educational system during rehabilation Martha Rogers - ansScience of Unitary Human Beings theory that focuses on people and their worlds in a pandimensional universe. Martha Rogers - ansviews human beings as wholes not parts
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Marjory Gordon - ansdeveloped a data collection system comprised of 10 functional health patterns necessary for assessment of a patients life experiences Sister Calista Roy - ansdrew her theory from the adaptation theory physics - ansWhat Martha Rogers theory is based on Defines health as a value laden term imposed by society - ansMartha Rogers "definition" of health Dynamic life experiences and adjustment to stress - ansImogene King's definition of health Levine's Conservation Theory - ansTeaches patient ways to limit energy expenditure during activities of daily living and assisting them in planning rest breaks Olfactory - ans1 or I smell Optic - ans2 or II vision Oculomotor - ans3 or III eye movement eyes moving in and out, constricting pupils, accommodating for light Trochlear - ans4 or IV eye movement down and outward. Trigeminal - ans5 or IV chewing, sensations of the face, scalp and teeth Abducens - ans6 or VI outward eye movements Facial - ans7 or VII facial expression, taste, salivation, crying Acoustic - ans8 or VIII hearing and equilibrium Glossopharyngeal - ans9 or IX secretes saliva, swallowing, controls gag reflex, sensation in the throat, and taste Vagus - ans10 or X swallowing, voice production, heart rate, rate of peristalsis, sensation in throat, thoracic and abdominal viscera Spinal Accessory - ans11 or XI shoulder and head movement Hypoglossaal - ans12 or XII tongue movement The chief nurse manager role is to provide - ansleadership through a vision of the potential capabilities of the unit The most successful leaders are - ansemotionally intelligent which means they are driven by qualities such as empathy, self - awareness, self-control, the desire to achieve, and social adeptness. The nurse manager is responsible for - anspromoting and disseminating information about the values and objectives of the nurses. The team nursing approach for patient care delivery - ansinvolves an RN being responsible for a large group of patients and other personnel Primary nursing delivery model - ansRNs are utilized to care for a smaller group of patients Nurse managers respsonsibilities include - ansmaintaining standards of practice, competency, care, accreditation, operating budgets, staff developement, human resources
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Revenue is related to the following - ansaverage daily census, Functional independence measure (FIM) of typical patients which determines the case mix group (CMG), Length of stay, number of discharges Expenses include - anssalaries, fringe benefits, staffing requirements, supplies, rental equipment Capital requirements include - ansequipment, furniture, construction The basis of nursing staff development is - ansfurther education Quality is defined as - ansmaintenance of the highest and finest standards The National Quality Forum (NQF) states the major areas of concern in the health care setting are - ansmedical errors, overtreatment, undertreatment. Three of the main regulatory bodies for health care quality are - ansCenters for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS), The Joint Commission (TJC), Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program (HFAP) CARF accredits which type of programs? - ansrehab programs Name 4 standardized tools for measurement of quality - ansFunctional Independence Measure (FIM), Minimum Data Set (MDS), Medicare Outcomes Trust health status questionnaires, Rating scales, Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) Name the 5 crucial types of quality measurements according to the National Quality Measures Clearinghouse - ansAccess, evaluation of effect, ability to provide suitiable care such as nurse to patient ratio, health care process, patient experience The National Database for Nursing Quality Indicators include - anshospital acquired pressure ulcers, safely administered medications, prevention of hospital acquired infections, rate of falls A lack of accidental injuries as a result of medical errors or avoidable adverse events - ansPatient Safety Active error - ansexecuted by nurse or other health care provider whose consequences are immediately observable. Latent error - ansare those that have consequences observable only over time, such as admin policies, inadequate staff, poor equipment Nolan and Nolan described 6 roles of the rehab nurse - ans1. assessment of patient's physical condition and delivery of needed care 2. Teach and counsel patient 3. be sensitive to and understand patient moods and coping mechanisms 4. Understand family dynamics, 5. deal with issues related to sexuality6. health care liason role and knowledge in health care delivery systems.
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
True or False: Many of the factors that impace the coping process are related to the person's sense of self and her abilities. - ansTrue The expectation of a favorable outcome. - ansOptimism Faith in improvement - ansHope Inherent ability to withstand adversity - ansHardiness Capacity for speedy recovery - ansResilience In assessing an individual's coping effectiveness, the nurse should ask about the person's - ansprevious lifestyle What 2 coping styles indicate nursing interventions are needed? - ansineffective and defensive Nursing interventions for ineffective coping should include: - ansproviding support that enhances the ability to cope, make decisions, control anger, build self esteem and enlarge support system Nursing interventions for defensive coping should include: - ansinterventions related to self- awareness, fostering relationships. The periodic recurrence of permanent, pervasive sadness or other grief related feelings associated with a significant loss. - ansChronic sorrow Caregivers who deliver care skillfully and supportively are considered what type of caregiver? - ansEngaged Caregivers who provide care only when necessary and encourage the patient to participate in decisions are considered what type of caregiver? - ansConflicted Caregivers who make the person being cared for primarily responsible for his own care and decisions are what type of care giver? - ansDistanced The method of helping the patient to adapt to stressors, changes, or threats to his lifestyle - ansCoping enhancement Examples of methods to assist in coping enhancement include - ansdidactic exercises, feedback, counseling, boundary setting, detail planning, recognition of coping sabotage The process of making it easier for a person to develop a positive outlook - ansHope instillation The development of a mutually beneficial relationship between the patient who has trouble relating and health care workers - ansComplex relationship building - goal to establish rapport The enrichment of the patient's life through interactions with family, friends, and society - ansSupport System Enhancement - have friends visit, peer support groups The utilization of any resources, people, or events in the patient's setting that can enhance psychosocial functioning - ansMilieu Therapy
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Milieu therapy includes - anslight-hearted atmosphere among the rehab nurses and patients, availability of resources and activities, pleasant use of sounds such as piped in music, tone of voice Theory of health treatment that incorporates physical, psychological, and social aspects to achieve health and well-being. - ansHolism An inner awareness and a relationship with a higher force - ansSpirituality The non-physical aspects of a person that shape his relationships and emotions and includes memories, understanding and will. - ansSoul (related to spirituality) Intangible life force of an individual - ansSpirit The primary role of the nurse in regards to spirituality is - ansPresencing or just being there for support or through touch. One of the best spiritual assessment tools is - ansSIBS - Spiritual Involvement and Beliefs Scale which has patient evaluate 34 statements from strongly disagree to strongly agree Name 5 nursing diagnosis related to a patient's sprituality - ansDifficulty making decisions, dysfunctional grieving, hopelessness, spiritual distress, readiness for enhanced spiritual well- being What are effective tools for diffusing tension and grief momentarily? - ansHumor and laughter Using various strategies to invoke previous pleasant memories - ansReminiscence therapy Bibliotherapy - ansReading The internal and conscious process of releasing negative attitudes and patterns and reestablishment of a feeling of wholeness - ansHealing One crucial component toward healing is - ansforgiveness (pardoning oneself and others) Self-hypnosis, prayer recitation, deep-breathing, muscle relaxation are types of - ansrelaxation exercises At 4 months old, an infant can - anslaugh, voice vowel and some consonants, repetitive babble At what age can an infant understand a few words and has partially intelligible speech? - ans months to 1 year Semantic language or substantive word stage is at what age? - ans18 - 36 months At what age can children able to understand syntax - ansAge 3 The most basic level of language which includes routine responses such as prayers or curse words is called - ansAutomatic language What type of language is the highest form and involves independent creative intention and application of rules? - ansSymbolic Language
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Assessment of your patients when monitoring fluid regulation should include? - ansLab values, weight, vital signs, breath sounds, fluid intake, elimination patterns In dehydration pt may complain of what? - ansWeakness, dry mouth S/S dehydration to look for? - ansIrritability and confusion, dizziness, weight loss, thirst, fever, poor skin turgor, decreased urine output Pt's with diabetes insipidus are at risk for? - ansDehydration because brain fails to secrete ADH resulting in excessive diuresis. Easy to miss because they will have plentiful dilute urine (instead of decreased urine) until situation is advanced. Lab values indicative of dehydration are: - ansThese 3 together: Elevated serum osmolality of >300, elevated serum sodium >145, urine specific gravity
1.030. Elderly are at risk for dehydration because? - ans1)Lower body/water content 2)decreasing kidney function 3)Diminished ability to sense thirst Pt's with diabetes insipidus and the elderly are at risk of dehydration. Who else is at risk? - ansConfused or dependent patients, pt's with dysphagia, any other on highly concentrated enteral feelings without supplemental water. Pt's with dehydration/hypovolemia will demonstrate the following signs and symptoms - ansDeterioration in mental status, thirst, tachycardia, longer capillary refill times, orthostatic hypotension, dropping urine output, cool pale skin on arms and legs, rapid weight loss. Deterioration in mental status, thirst, tachycardia, longer capillary refill times, orthostatic hypotension, dropping urine output, cool pale skin on arms and legs, rapid weight loss are s/s of what? - ansDehydration/hypovolemia Untreated dehydration/hypovolemia progresses to what? - ansShock Lab values in untreated hypovolemia/dehydration may indicate what? - ans1)normal to elevated serum sodium levels (varies w/ the amt of fluid and sodium loss) 2)increased or normal hematocrit levels 3)elevated blood urea nitrogen levels 4)elevated urine specific gravity Avoiding hypertonic IV solutions, encouraging increased oral fluid intake, administering salt- free fluids, supplementing with D5W, administer fluids slowly to avoid cellular edema, monitoring vitals, tracking I & O's, monitoring weight, monitoring lab results, maintaining integrity of skin and mucous membranes are interventions for what? - ansDehydration Lab values: 1)normal to elevated serum sodium levels (varies w/ the amt of fluid and sodium loss)
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
2)increased or normal hematocrit levels 3)elevated blood urea nitrogen levels 4)elevated urine specific gravity Signs of what? - ansDehydration Common bowel elimination problem in rehab is: - ansConstipation due to decreased fluid intake, diet and decreased mobility Frequent causes of constipation in rehab pt's is: - ansDecreased fluid intake, diet, decreased mobility, pain meds Common interventions for constipation in rehab are: - ans1)manage causative factors (diet, fluids, exercise) 2)utilize gastrocolic reflex to stimulate emptying 3)encourage regular evacuation time 4)place on toilet instead of bed pan 1)manage causative factors (diet, fluids, exercise) 2)utilize gastrocolic reflex to stimulate emptying 3)encourage regular evacuation time 4)place on toilet instead of bed pan Common interventions for what? - ansConstipation Most common neurogenic bowel problem following stroke is: - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bowel Carefully assess to determine which bowel problem you are dealing with because? - ansMany elderly may present with both constipation and uninhibited neurogenic problems. Uninhibited neurogenic bowel problems result from? - ansUMN damage in the brain, limiting recognition of signals from the bowel that it is full. Features of Uninhibited Neurogenic Bowel are: - ans1)intact or hypertonic internal and external sphincters 2)intact saddle sensation 3)normal or hyperactive bulbocavernous reflex 4)sudden defecation with or without urgency 5)hard stool with smearing Features of what bowel problem? 1)intact or hypertonic internal and external sphincters 2)intact saddle sensation 3)normal or hyperactive bulbocavernous reflex 4)sudden defecation with or without urgency 5)hard stool with smearing - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bowel
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Name 3 interventions for functional incontinence - ans1)respond promptly to requests to void 2)alter clothing and provide adaptive equipment 3)remove environmental barriers Interventions for what problem: 1)respond promptly to requests to void 2)alter clothing and provide adaptive equipment 3)remove environmental barriers - ansFunctional incontinence Most common neurogenic bladder problem following stroke - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bladder Uninhibited Neurogenic Bladder results from: - ansUMN damage in the brain which fails to suppress reflexive contraction of the detrusor. Cause if what problem: UMN damage in the brain which fails to suppress reflexive contraction of the detrusor. - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bladder Uninhibited Neurogenic Bladder is common in what disease processes affecting the cortex? - ansStroke, Brain Injury, Brain Tumors, Multiple Sclerosis Name 3-4 features of Uninhibited Neurogenic Bladder - ans1)intact or hypertonic internal and external sphincters 2)intact saddle sensation 3)normal to hyperactive bulbocavernous reflex 4)sudden voiding with our without urgency, frequency or nocturia 5)decreased bladder capacity Features of what problem: 1)intact or hypertonic internal and external sphincters 2)intact saddle sensation 3)normal to hyperactive bulbocavernous reflex 4)sudden voiding with our without urgency, frequency or nocturia 5)decreased bladder capacity - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bladder Name 3-4 strategies for Uninhibited Neurogenic Bladder. - ans1)maintain adequate fluid intake, but avoid exceeding 2000ml/24 hrs 2)decrease fluid intake early in the evening to avoid nocturia 3)use timed voiding, prompted voiding or habit training to increase continence based on the pt's cognitive abilities 4)use bathroom schedules based on the pt's usual time of voiding 5)use anticholinergic meds to decrease detrusor contractility and to increase bladder capacity 6)make sure it is easy for pt to get to the bathroom in a timely manner
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
Strategies for what problem? 1)maintain adequate fluid intake, but avoid exceeding 2000ml/24 hrs 2)decrease fluid intake early in the evening to avoid nocturia 3)use timed voiding, prompted voiding or habit training to increase continence based on the pt's cognitive abilities 4)use bathroom schedules based on the pt's usual time of voiding 5)use anticholinergic meds to decrease detrusor contractility and to increase bladder capacity 6)make sure it is easy for pt to get to the bathroom in a timely manner - ansUninhibited Neurogenic Bladder Contains Amygdala and Hippicampus - ansLimbic System Contains Satiety Center - ansHypothalamus Controls vegetative functions - ansHypothalamus Contains respiratory control center - ansBrain stem Secretion of several hormones - ansHypothalamus Memory - ansLimbic System Pleasant vs unpleasant feelings - ansThalamus Fight/flight response - ansLimbic System Secretion of ADH - ansHypothalamus Interprets sensory messages - ansLimbic System Relay Station - ansThalamus Cranial nerves arise from here - ansBrain stem Ascending and descending tracts go through - ansBrain stem Pituitary gland - ansHypothalamus Thirst and hunger - ansHypothalamus Initial recognition of pain and temp - ansThalamus King Theory - ansGoal attainment Neuman Theory - ansHealth Care System Model :Physical,social/cultural,psychological,spiritual Orem theory - ansSelf Care Model Roy Theory - ansAdaptation Model ,Goals are mutually defined , Family highly involved. Rogers Theory - ansModel of Science of Unitary Human Beings (Patient and Environment) Roper Theory - ansModel's for living and Nursing and Gordon's Functional Health Patterns. Based on the ability to form ADL's. Katherine Kolcaba (1990) - ansComfort Theory Bandura's Theory - ansSelf - Efficacy ,cognitive Theory Health Belief Model - ansAttempts to explain differences among individuals
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
levels, decontamination procedures, terrorism response, and
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) use. Graded A+, this
guide is perfect for fire service personnel and hazmat responders
preparing for certification or review.
Latest updated Exam Guide 2025/2026.
S2- 4 - ansPerianal area Behavioral - ansWatson Watson learning theory - ansConditioning or reinforcement of behaviors motivation. Repetitive learning Cognitive - ansLewin Lewis learning theory - ansInsight provides as a guide, model behavior, demonstrations Humanist - ansRogers Rogers learning theory - ansLearner formulates own objectives, South motivated, learning contracts Adult learning - ansKnowles Knowles learning theory - ansAndragogy and pedagogy Learning domains - ansBloom Bloom learning theory - ansCognitive, affective and psychomotor Self efficacy - ansA sense of control that is composed of coping with appraising and managing one's life (ex: if I don't believe I can do it I likely will not be able to do it) Internal locus of control - ansBelieve that outcomes are influenced by one's choices and actions. Use more problem-solving approaches to cope External locus of control - ansBelief that one's life is controlled by feet, chance, events or other people Apathy - ansan attitude characterized by bland affect lethargy and decreased motivation Confabulation - ansThe invention of detail or life experiences in an attempt to compensate for memory deficits Emotional lability - ansCharacterized by uncontrollable, fluctuating emotional behaviors (Gaiety, somberness and crying) Disinhibition - ansUncontrolled behaviors considered inappropriate Effects of aging (lungs) - ansPna, influenza Effects of aging (heart) - ansMI, CHF, arrhythmia, peripheral vascular disease, orthostatic hypotension 3 - D's - ansDepression delirium and dementia none of these are normal aging we treat and manage them Medicare Social Security act of 1965 - ansOperates under the department of health and human services and is managed by the centers of Medicare and Medicaid. Eligibility must be a worker or spouse of a worker greater than 65 years of age or disabled >2years. Or ESRD. Eligible for SS are automatically enrolled
Questions and Verified Answers, A+ Graded Study Guide.
This comprehensive study guide contains the most recent and
verified questions and answers for the Texas Commission on Fire
Protection (TCFP) and Garland Fire Department (GFD)
Hazmat Awareness and Operations test. It covers all critical
topics including hazardous material identification, emergency
response protocols, NFPA 704 and DOT labelling systems, PPE
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Medicaid Social Security act of 1965 - ansProvides federal grants to states for medical assistance programs. reimbursement is usually lower than cost. Determined by states definition of medically needy and is variable state to state Estate planning - ansLong-term planning of the use of resources for future care and expenses Guardianship - ansAppointment have decision-maker for persons who is incapacitated Deviant development - ansDisruption in the normal development sequence secondary to unevenly developed or neurologically impaired process Developmental task - ansA growth responsibility that arises at a certain time in the course of development Delayed development - ansAdvancement through the normal sequence of milestones at a rate slower than that of peers of the same chronological age Lewins theory of changes - ansUnfreezing is the need for change. Movement is increased level of behavior. Refreezing is change and set, new status quo. Forces can be either driving a restraining forces Rehabilitation act 0f 1973 - ansNon-discrimination for people w/ disability 1974 - ansAssociation of Rehabilitation Nurses was created 1975 - ansEducation Of all Handicapped Children 1990 American Disability Act - ansIncreased accessibility, increased opportunity for employment,education and healthcare 1990 Self Determination Act - ansmust have Advance Directive copy in charts, Educate pts on their rights Balance Budget Act - ans1997 - which required pps( is prospective payment system) required used of resource utlization groups (RUGS) 75% to 60% Rule - anscreated in 1984,TEN catergories for admission for rehab, 2003- increased to THIRTEEN Capped Medicare Part B - ansLimit for theraphy,PT and speech share same cap, OT own cap and must be medically necessary WHO classification in 1980 which is the loss or abnormal of a pyschological or antomical sructure and function. Ex- organ - ansImpairment WHO classification in 1980 of a restriction or lack resulting from impairment, inability to perform activity in manner within normal range.Occurs at the individual level Ex-neuropathy
- ansDisability WHO classification in 1980 disadvantage of a given person resulting from impairment or disability that limits or prevents fulfillment of a role that is normal for a human being. Occurs at the society level ex-amputation - ansHandicap Goal of rehabilitation - ansrestore,maintain, and promote maximal health
