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TCFP MASTER STRUCTURAL FIRE
PROTECTION EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025
- What is the maximum allowable time a fire department can take to initiate fire suppression operations upon arrival? A. 3 minutes B. 2 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 4 minutes NFPA 1710 recommends fire suppression to begin within 2 minutes of arrival to ensure timely intervention.
- What is the correct order for risk management priorities on the fireground? A. Property, Life, Environment B. Life, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation C. Incident Stabilization, Property, Life D. Environment, Property, Life
Life safety always takes priority, followed by stabilizing the incident and preserving property.
- Which type of command is best used in complex incidents with multiple agencies? A. Unified Command B. Single Command C. Group Command D. Operational Control Unified Command allows multiple agencies to work together without affecting individual authority.
- The maximum distance a ladder company should be placed from a building to ensure proper reach is: A. Half the building height B. One-fourth the building height C. Equal to the building height D. One-third the building height The base should be placed one-fourth of the working height for optimal climbing angle.
- Which construction type provides the best fire resistance? A. Type V B. Type I C. Type III D. Type IV
- According to the TCFP, how often must SCBA units be flow-tested? A. Every 6 months B. After each use C. Annually D. Every 2 years SCBA units must be flow-tested at least once annually to ensure performance integrity. 10.What is the first tactical priority in structural firefighting? A. Extinguishment B. Exposure protection C. Rescue D. Ventilation Rescue operations always take priority over other tactical goals during initial response. 11.What is the minimum staffing for an interior structural fire attack under OSHA’s Two-In, Two-Out rule? A. 3 firefighters B. 1 inside, 3 outside C. 2 inside, 2 outside D. 4 inside OSHA mandates that two personnel remain outside while two operate inside during IDLH entry. 12.What is a common sign of potential structural collapse? A. Water dripping from ceiling
B. Cracks or separation in walls C. Discoloration of materials D. Light smoke from roof Visible structural damage such as cracking or shifting walls is a key indicator of collapse risk. 13.What kind of command structure is needed for multiple-alarm fires? A. Branch Command B. Unit Command C. Tactical Control D. Engine-Level Control Branch Command allows for effective management across multiple divisions or sectors. 14.A truss roof exposed to fire is considered dangerous because: A. It's hard to ventilate B. It collapses slowly C. It can fail suddenly without warning D. It retains heat Trusses can fail rapidly with little to no visual warning when exposed to heat. 15.What type of fire attack method involves applying water to the ceiling and upper gas layers first? A. Transitional Attack B. Blitz Attack C. Direct Attack
Calling a MAYDAY activates immediate RIT deployment and locates the firefighter faster. 19.What is the main purpose of pre-incident planning? A. Improve operational readiness and reduce response time B. Increase inspections C. Document building owners D. Assign overtime Pre-plans give firefighters valuable knowledge to enhance effectiveness and safety. 20.The safest method of ventilating a building with a strong wind condition is: A. Venting with the wind B. Against the wind C. Using PPV only D. Closing all openings Vent with the wind direction to avoid pushing smoke and heat back inside. 21.What is the minimum flow rate for interior structural firefighting attack lines according to NFPA standards? A. 60 GPM B. 80 GPM C. 95 GPM D. 120 GPM
NFPA recommends a minimum flow of 95 GPM for effective suppression in interior structural fires. 22.When operating above a fire, the floor must be: A. Hosed down first B. Evaluated for structural integrity C. Ignored unless collapse is imminent D. Ventilated immediately Working above a fire presents collapse risks; structural integrity must always be assessed. 23.What is the primary hazard of lightweight construction during fire incidents? A. Early structural failure B. Smoke retention C. Flame spread D. Water runoff Lightweight trusses and joists fail faster under fire due to reduced mass and thermal resistance. 24.A key sign of backdraft is: A. Fast-moving orange flames B. Smoke-stained windows and puffing smoke C. Loud popping sounds D. Water dripping from ceiling Backdraft conditions include thick smoke under pressure and smoke- stained windows.
C. Negative pressure D. Vapor pressure Heat increases pressure inside structures, pushing smoke toward openings. 29.Which of the following methods increases firefighter safety when advancing a hose line? A. Crawl slowly B. Maintain contact with a wall C. Move quickly through open spaces D. Turn your back to the fire Maintaining wall contact provides orientation and exit path in low visibility. 30.When should a firefighter conduct a risk/benefit analysis? A. Before every tactical action B. After knockdown C. Only during training D. Only the IC should do it Risk/benefit assessments are ongoing and critical to safe, effective decisions. 31.In the rescue profile acronym LUNAR, what does the “A” stand for? A. Alert B. Assignment C. Air supply
D. Access LUNAR: Location, Unit, Name, Assignment, Resources/Radio. 32.What color is typically used to mark a firefighter accountability tag? A. Blue B. Yellow C. White D. Red Yellow tags are commonly used, but systems vary; importance lies in consistency and visibility. 33.Which ventilation method involves the use of fans to pressurize a structure? A. Vertical B. Positive pressure ventilation (PPV) C. Hydraulic D. Natural PPV uses fans to introduce air and push smoke out predetermined exits. 34.What should be the immediate action if fire is encountered in a concealed attic space? A. Retreat B. Open up the ceiling and attack C. Use CO₂ extinguishers D. Wait for roof crew Quickly opening and applying water is necessary to prevent rapid fire spread in concealed spaces.
B. Safety Officer C. Planning Section D. Operations Chief The IC establishes the overall goals, strategy, and resource assignments. 39.The term "freelancing" on the fireground refers to: A. Driving apparatus without command B. Not wearing PPE C. Operating without direction or accountability D. Handling public relations Freelancing increases risk by removing oversight and coordinated effort. 40.What is the acceptable air cylinder pressure drop that requires bottle replacement? A. Below 90% full B. Below 60% full C. Below 50% full D. Any pressure drop If an SCBA cylinder falls below 90% before entry, it should be replaced for safety. 41.What does a rapid increase in temperature and rollover indicate? A. Collapse risk B. Impending flashover C. Overhaul time D. Wind-driven fire Rollover and rising temperatures signal that flashover is likely imminent.
42.What is the proper method for conducting a primary search? A. Systematic, quick search for life in high-probability areas B. Random movement through structure C. Only in open areas D. Use of ladders only Primary searches are fast and focused on locating victims in the most likely areas. 43.In ICS, who is responsible for tracking personnel and resources? A. Safety Officer B. Resource Unit Leader C. Operations Chief D. Planning Section Chief The Resource Unit is part of the Planning Section and manages accountability. 44.When should overhaul operations begin? A. After fire is declared under control B. During suppression C. Before search D. Before ventilation Overhaul begins once the fire is controlled to ensure extinguishment and prevent rekindle. 45.What construction feature may create hidden fire paths between floors? A. Concrete slabs B. Balloon frame voids
49.In an exterior attack, what is the main objective? A. Interior rescue B. Protect exposures and contain fire C. Salvage operations D. Overhaul Defensive attacks aim to prevent fire spread beyond the structure and protect nearby buildings. 50.The optimal nozzle pattern for gas cooling is: A. Solid stream B. Fog pattern C. Broken stream D. Straight stream Fog nozzles produce fine droplets ideal for gas cooling without disturbing layers. 51.What is the NFPA standard for live fire training evolutions? A. NFPA 1001 B. NFPA 1500 C. NFPA 1403 D. NFPA 1021 NFPA 1403 sets the requirements and safety measures for live fire training. 52.During a fire attack, what is the correct nozzle movement for direct attack on base of flames? A. Side to side sweep
B. Circle pattern C. Z-pattern D. Pulsing The Z-pattern effectively cools the fire base and provides suppression. 53.What is a hazard of roof operations on a fire-weakened building? A. Too much ventilation B. Sudden roof collapse C. Lack of PPE D. Steam burns Fire can compromise structural integrity, leading to sudden collapse. 54.Firefighter rehabilitation should occur after: A. 1 hour B. 3 bottle changes C. 2 bottle changes or 45 minutes of strenuous work D. 15 minutes Standard rehab protocol requires rest after 2 cylinders or 45 minutes of work. 55.A properly coordinated ventilation effort should occur: A. Simultaneously with fire attack B. Only after knockdown C. After rescue D. Without communication Ventilation must be coordinated with attack to avoid worsening fire spread.
C. Boots D. Bunker coat SCBAs are essential to protect the respiratory system from toxic gases. 60.Which type of fire stream is best suited for penetrating hidden fires? A. Fog stream B. Straight stream C. Mist D. Broken stream Straight streams offer deeper penetration into hidden areas for effective extinguishment. 61.Which tactic is most effective when fire is venting from multiple windows upon arrival? A. Delay entry B. Perform exterior transitional attack C. Ventilate roof first D. Conduct salvage A transitional attack cools the fire from the exterior before interior operations begin. 62.Who is responsible for developing the Incident Action Plan (IAP)? A. Safety Officer B. Public Information Officer C. Planning Section Chief
D. Logistics Section Chief The Planning Section Chief develops the IAP in coordination with the IC. 63.In an IDLH atmosphere, when should personnel be relieved? A. After 2 hours B. When SCBA air supply is at 50% C. After command approval D. Once all victims are removed Firefighters must begin exit procedures when their SCBA reaches 50% of air supply. 64.What is the major concern when using Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV) improperly? A. Wind alignment B. Fire spread to uninvolved areas C. Excessive humidity D. Fan damage PPV can force fire into voids or uninvolved areas if exhaust openings are not controlled. 65.When does the risk to firefighters justify high-risk operations? A. When the structure is large B. When there’s a known savable life C. When command orders it D. When fire is fully involved High-risk actions are justified only when there’s a realistic chance to save lives.
