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TCFP Plans Examiner I Exam questions and correct answers plus rationales . Questions cove, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

TCFP Plans Examiner I Exam questions and correct answers plus rationales . Questions cover essential knowledge in code interpretation, fire safety systems, occupancy classification, egress, and plan review procedures.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/18/2025

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TCFP Plans Examiner I Exam questions
and correct answers plus rationales
. Questions cover essential knowledge in code interpretation, fire safety systems, occupancy
classification, egress, and plan review procedures.
1. What is the primary purpose of a plans examiner in fire prevention?
A. To approve fire insurance rates
B. To ensure compliance with fire codes
C. To estimate building costs
D. To install fire alarm systems
The plans examiner’s role focuses on code compliance to ensure safety
and prevent hazards.
2. Which NFPA standard provides guidance for fire prevention code
enforcement?
A. NFPA 1
B. NFPA 1730
C. NFPA 101
D. NFPA 25
NFPA 1730 outlines the organization and deployment of fire prevention
inspection and code enforcement.
3. During plan review, what must the examiner first verify?
A. Exit sign placement
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Download TCFP Plans Examiner I Exam questions and correct answers plus rationales . Questions cove and more Exams Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!

TCFP Plans Examiner I Exam questions

and correct answers plus rationales

. Questions cover essential knowledge in code interpretation, fire safety systems, occupancy classification, egress, and plan review procedures. 1. What is the primary purpose of a plans examiner in fire prevention? A. To approve fire insurance rates B. To ensure compliance with fire codes C. To estimate building costs D. To install fire alarm systems The plans examiner’s role focuses on code compliance to ensure safety and prevent hazards. 2. Which NFPA standard provides guidance for fire prevention code enforcement? A. NFPA 1 B. NFPA 1730 C. NFPA 101 D. NFPA 25 NFPA 1730 outlines the organization and deployment of fire prevention inspection and code enforcement. 3. During plan review, what must the examiner first verify? A. Exit sign placement

B. Occupancy classification C. Fire hydrant distance D. Alarm panel location The occupancy classification determines applicable code provisions and design criteria.

  1. What is the minimum number of exits required for an assembly occupancy with an occupant load over 500? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four NFPA 101 requires four exits for assembly occupancies over 500 occupants.
  2. A plans examiner uses which document to determine required fire resistance ratings? A. OSHA standards B. Building inspection manual C. International Building Code (IBC) D. Fire ground operations manual The IBC includes tables and rules for fire resistance ratings based on occupancy and construction.
  3. What does a “Type I” construction classification mean? A. Highest level of fire resistance B. Limited combustibility
  1. Which occupancy type includes schools for grades K–12? A. Educational B. Assembly C. Mercantile D. Institutional Educational occupancies include schools through the 12th grade with 6 or more students.
  2. A fire sprinkler system must comply with which NFPA standard? A. NFPA 13R B. NFPA 13 C. NFPA 14 D. NFPA 20 NFPA 13 governs the installation of fire sprinkler systems for most occupancies.
  3. Which factor most affects egress capacity? A. Window size B. Door width C. Ceiling height D. Wall material Egress capacity is calculated based on the width of exit paths, especially doorways.
  4. A hazardous materials storage area must comply with: A. NFPA 101

B. IBC Chapter 2 C. IFC Chapter 50 D. NFPA 70 IFC Chapter 50 regulates hazardous materials storage and use.

  1. What is the minimum width for an exit access corridor in a non-sprinklered business occupancy? A. 44 inches B. 36 inches C. 48 inches D. 52 inches Minimum width requirements ensure safe and efficient egress during emergencies.
  2. A mezzanine is considered part of which floor in a building? A. The floor below it B. The roof C. The top floor D. A separate story Mezzanines are not considered separate stories per IBC definitions.
  3. When reviewing plans, how should fire hydrant placement be evaluated? A. Based on aesthetics B. Based on building orientation C. Based on distance to the most remote part of the building D. Based on proximity to trees

B. Contain fire C. Limit smoke movement between compartments D. Control temperature Smoke barriers restrict the movement of smoke to aid occupant evacuation and fire control.

  1. Who typically approves alternate methods and materials during plan review? A. Contractor B. Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ) C. Building owner D. Architect The AHJ determines if an alternate method meets the intent of the code. 22.How often should plans be reviewed for completeness before formal submittal? A. Never B. Before every formal review C. Only during inspection D. Only after approval Preliminary review ensures completeness and reduces rejections and delays.
  2. Standpipe systems are required in buildings over what height? A. 25 feet B. 30 feet

C. 40 feet D. 50 feet IFC and IBC require standpipes for buildings over a certain threshold, often 30 feet.

  1. What must be included on site plans for review? A. Carpet type B. Paint schedule C. Fire access roads and hydrants D. Elevator model Site plans must show access and hydrant placement to meet response and suppression needs. 25.NFPA 220 defines: A. Types of building construction B. Fire extinguisher classes C. Flame spread ratings D. Alarm signal types NFPA 220 classifies construction types based on combustibility and fire resistance.
  2. A plan examiner’s review is considered: A. An approval of safety B. A code compliance check C. An estimate of building cost D. A legal building permit

C. Restroom dimensions D. Carpet manufacturer Plans must show device locations and describe how the system meets code intent.

  1. During plan review, documents must be: A. Submitted electronically only B. Legible, complete, and to scale C. Signed by tenants D. Submitted after construction begins Accurate and legible plans are critical for an effective and code- compliant review.
  2. Exit discharge must lead to: A. Another corridor B. Lobby area C. Public way or safe dispersal area D. Parking garage Exit discharge areas must ensure safe egress from the building to the exterior.
  3. Fire doors must comply with: A. OSHA 1910 B. IFC Chapter 9 C. NFPA 80

D. NFPA 30

NFPA 80 covers installation and maintenance of fire doors and windows.

  1. Which code includes rules for means of egress? A. NFPA 25 B. NFPA 10 C. International Building Code (IBC) D. International Energy Code The IBC outlines design and requirements for egress systems.
  2. What is required in a sprinkler system submittal? A. Door swing details B. Rooftop access C. Hydraulic calculations and pipe layout D. Smoke detector battery types Hydraulic calculations verify the system will deliver water effectively.
  3. Fire extinguishers are required per which standard? A. NFPA 13 B. NFPA 10 C. NFPA 14 D. NFPA 72 NFPA 10 governs the placement, type, and maintenance of portable extinguishers.
  4. Which method measures fire resistance of walls? A. Thermography B. ASTM E119 test
  1. When can an alternate design be accepted? A. When cheaper B. When it meets intent and is approved by AHJ C. When the contractor signs it D. Always Alternate designs must meet code intent and be approved by the AHJ.
  2. Smoke detectors in corridors must be spaced according to: A. Fire department rules B. Architect preference C. NFPA 72 D. Electrical code NFPA 72 sets spacing and location requirements for smoke detection.
  3. Compartmentation protects against: A. Cold weather B. Fire and smoke spread C. Structural collapse D. Erosion Compartments confine fire to delay spread and protect occupants.
  4. Pressurization systems are used in: A. Garages B. Bathrooms C. Exit stairwells

D. Kitchens Stairwell pressurization keeps smoke from entering egress paths. 45.An occupancy with sleeping accommodations and skilled nursing is classified as: A. Business B. Institutional C. Residential D. Storage Institutional occupancies include those with medical care and limited mobility.

  1. How are code appeals typically handled? A. Ignored B. Reviewed by a board or the AHJ C. Automatically granted D. Determined by fire chief only Formal appeals may be submitted to the AHJ or a code appeals board.
  2. A permit for a fire alarm system is usually required: A. Only if the owner requests it B. Before installation C. After final inspection D. Never Permits ensure compliance and allow official plan review and inspection.
  3. Which code regulates flammable finishes and spray booths? A. NFPA 54

52.What is the primary factor in determining sprinkler system demand? A. Alarm battery type B. Hazard classification C. Wall thickness D. Fire department response time Sprinkler systems are designed based on the hazard level: light, ordinary, or extra.

  1. Occupant load calculations for assembly areas without fixed seats are based on: A. 100 gross B. 15 net C. 50 gross D. 30 net Assembly without fixed seating uses 15 net square feet per person per IBC Table. 54.What should be included in hydraulic calculations for sprinklers? A. Room color B. Water flow and pressure data C. Exit sign wattage D. Furniture locations Hydraulic calculations confirm adequate water delivery based on pressure and demand.
  2. Which NFPA standard regulates fire department access elevators? A. NFPA 70

B. NFPA 13

C. NFPA 101

D. NFPA 105

NFPA 101 includes provisions for elevators used during emergency evacuation or firefighter access. 56.What is the maximum travel distance to an exit in a sprinklered business occupancy? A. 75 feet B. 300 feet C. 100 feet D. 500 feet Sprinklered buildings may allow extended travel distances under IBC.

  1. How are exit signs powered during an emergency? A. Main power supply B. Battery bank only C. Primary and secondary power sources D. Solar panels Exit signs must operate on both normal and emergency power (battery or generator). 58.A corridor in a non-sprinklered educational occupancy must have what minimum fire-resistance rating? A. None B. 1 hour C. 2 hours

D. A locked hallway Codes limit dead-end corridor lengths due to egress safety concerns.

  1. The IBC requires that doors in the path of egress must: A. Be opaque B. Swing in any direction C. Swing in the direction of egress travel when serving high-occupant loads D. Be at least 96 inches tall This prevents congestion during evacuations in occupancies over certain thresholds.
  2. A fire lane must be how wide to accommodate apparatus access? A. 15 feet B. 16 feet C. 20 feet D. 24 feet Standard fire lane width allows for safe fire department vehicle maneuverability.
  3. Fire sprinkler systems must include which key monitoring feature? A. Building temperature B. Water flow alarm C. Smoke detector interlock D. Fireproof junction box Water flow switches monitor for activation and alert the fire alarm panel.

65.When evaluating egress systems, which component is not considered part of means of egress? A. Exit discharge B. Exit access C. Furniture arrangement D. Exit Furniture isn’t part of the structural means of egress but may obstruct it.

  1. What is the occupant load factor for mercantile spaces (sales areas)? A. 60 gross B. 15 net C. 30 net D. 100 gross IBC provides 60 gross square feet per person for mercantile spaces.
  2. A manual fire alarm pull station must be placed: A. Near HVAC ducts B. Within 5 feet of each exit door C. Next to restrooms D. Behind furniture Placement ensures accessibility during evacuation.
  3. Plans examiners should review which component for emergency lighting? A. Window tint B. Flooring material C. Battery backup and coverage