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TCFP PLANS EXAMINER II EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
- What is the primary responsibility of a Plans Examiner II? A. Fire scene investigation B. Ensuring construction documents comply with fire codes C. Supervising fire suppression crews D. Conducting firefighter training A Plans Examiner II focuses on reviewing and approving building and fire protection system plans for code compliance.
- Which NFPA standard primarily governs plan reviews for life safety compliance? A. NFPA 30 B. NFPA 101 C. NFPA 25 D. NFPA 921
NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) outlines life safety provisions for new and existing buildings.
- What document is used to verify fire protection system design meets intent? A. CAD drawings B. Site plan C. Design narrative D. Hydrant flow test The design narrative explains the design approach and justifies system compliance.
- A fire department connection (FDC) must be located: A. Inside the fire riser room B. Behind a locked gate C. Visible and accessible from the street D. On the rooftop Accessibility and visibility for firefighting operations are critical for FDC locations.
- When reviewing sprinkler plans, the minimum information includes: A. Color-coded riser diagrams B. Hydraulic calculations and head layouts C. Elevator shaft details D. HVAC specifications Sprinkler plan submittals must include calculations, head spacing, and pipe details.
- Plans Examiner II must understand zoning ordinances primarily because: A. They dictate fire suppression tactics B. They affect building use and egress capacity C. They regulate overtime pay D. They control inspection hours Zoning affects occupancy types and allowed building functions, impacting life safety review. 10.Smoke control system drawings must include: A. Elevator locations B. Airflow direction and fan capacities C. Carpet layout D. Security camera placements To review smoke control, airflow direction and mechanical data are essential. 11.Which code establishes requirements for means of egress? A. NFPA 13 B. NFPA 101 C. NFPA 72 D. NFPA 25 NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) contains detailed provisions for means of egress. 12.When reviewing a site plan, what is the minimum required fire lane width according to most fire codes?
A. 16 feet B. 18 feet C. 20 feet D. 22 feet A 20-foot unobstructed width is the standard for fire apparatus access. 13.What is a common fire rating required for a stair enclosure in a high-rise building? A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 2 hours D. 3 hours A 2-hour fire-resistance rating is standard for stairwells in high-rise buildings to protect egress routes. 14.The review of emergency lighting plans focuses on: A. Color temperature B. Illumination of egress paths during power loss C. Power consumption D. Battery lifespan Emergency lighting must sufficiently illuminate egress routes during outages. 15.A key element in fire flow calculation is: A. Parking availability B. Number of building occupants C. Building construction type and square footage
C. Distributed widely D. Evaluated and approved by a recognized testing laboratory Listing confirms the product meets testing standards by approved labs (e.g., UL). 20.According to fire codes, access roads must support what minimum load? A. 25,000 lbs B. 75,000 lbs C. 15,000 lbs D. 50,000 lbs Access roads must support the imposed load of fire apparatus, typically at least 75,000 lbs. 21.A post-indicator valve (PIV) is typically used to: A. Control the water supply to a fire sprinkler system B. Monitor smoke levels C. Vent mechanical rooms D. Operate exit signage PIVs control and indicate the open or closed status of sprinkler system water supplies. 22.For review of hazardous materials storage areas, which NFPA standard is most relevant? A. NFPA 101 B. NFPA 400 C. NFPA 25
D. NFPA 14
NFPA 400 governs the storage, use, and handling of hazardous materials. 23.When a plan indicates a fire barrier, the reviewer should check for: A. Carpet compliance B. Penetration protection and fire rating C. Lighting layout D. HVAC temperature control Fire barriers must maintain integrity; all penetrations must be properly sealed. 24.An occupant load factor is used to: A. Determine building volume B. Calculate maximum occupancy based on use C. Measure room temperature D. Determine sprinkler head spacing Occupant load factors are defined per occupancy classification to calculate safe egress. 25.When must a standpipe system be provided in a building? A. When the building is wider than 50 feet B. When floor level of the highest story is more than 30 feet above or below fire department access C. When the building has more than two restrooms D. For all commercial kitchens Standpipes are required for buildings with floors significantly above or below fire access.
D. Pre-action system Dry systems use pressurized air to prevent freezing in cold environments. 30.A deluge system differs from a wet pipe system in that it: A. Has open sprinklers and is activated by a detection system B. Is always charged with water C. Requires no alarms D. Is manually activated Deluge systems are used where rapid water discharge is needed, with all sprinklers open. 31.A K-Factor in sprinkler heads relates to: A. Fireproofing material B. Flow characteristics of the sprinkler C. Pressure at fire hydrants D. Slope of the roof K-Factor determines the discharge rate of a sprinkler at a given pressure. 32.What is the required clear width of an accessible means of egress? A. 24 inches B. 32 inches C. 36 inches D. 40 inches The minimum required clear width is 32 inches for accessible egress components. 33.A fire pump test header must be located: A. Outside the building for accessibility
B. In the mechanical room C. On the roof D. Adjacent to the riser This ensures ease of testing and safety in case of system failure. 34.The TCFP requires plans examiners to maintain knowledge of which fire code editions? A. Most current and one previous B. Editions used by other states C. The editions adopted by their local AHJ D. The original versions Plans examiners enforce the codes adopted by their local Authority Having Jurisdiction. 35.Which occupancy would typically require fire-resistive separation? A. Single-family residence B. Small storage shed C. Mixed-use retail and residential D. Open parking garage Mixed-use occupancies often require fire-rated separations between different use types. 36.What is the primary purpose of smoke partitions? A. Provide thermal insulation B. Prevent water damage C. Limit smoke movement D. Block noise
B. NFPA 92
C. NFPA 13R
D. NFPA 14
NFPA 92 outlines requirements for smoke management systems including atrium applications. 41.What code sets accessibility standards for new construction? A. NFPA 101 B. NFPA 5000 C. ICC A117. D. IFC ICC A117.1 provides guidelines for accessible and usable buildings and facilities. 42.When must a fire command center be provided? A. In all warehouses B. In high-rise buildings C. In buildings over 1,000 sq ft D. In residential homes Fire command centers are required in high-rise buildings to assist fire departments. 43.The plans examiner should verify what during a performance-based design submittal? A. Carpet durability B. Engineering justification for code equivalency C. Furniture arrangement
D. Vent locations Performance-based designs require engineering to show compliance with code intent. 44.Which occupancy is most likely to require emergency voice/alarm communication systems? A. Business B. Assembly C. Storage D. Mercantile Large assembly occupancies (e.g., stadiums, theaters) require voice/alarm systems for evacuation. 45.A manual fire alarm pull station must be located: A. Near each exit B. In mechanical rooms C. Behind locked doors D. Above ceiling tiles Pull stations must be accessible and visible, typically at exit doors. 46.When reviewing fire sprinkler design for an ordinary hazard occupancy, minimum density is: A. 0.05 gpm/sqft B. 0.15 gpm/sqft C. 0.10 gpm/sqft D. 0.05 gpm/sqft NFPA 13 requires 0.15 gpm/sqft for Ordinary Hazard Group 2 areas.
A. Wet-pipe B. Deluge C. Pre-action D. Dry-pipe Pre-action systems use detection to avoid false activations in sensitive areas like server rooms. 51.Sprinkler head obstructions must maintain a clear distance of: A. 6 inches B. 18 inches below sprinkler deflectors C. 3 inches D. 24 inches NFPA 13 requires an 18-inch clearance below sprinklers for water spray distribution. 52.When calculating occupant load, which factor is used? A. Ceiling height B. Occupancy classification C. Number of stairwells D. Width of the corridor Each use classification has a specific occupant load factor per square footage. 53.The fire resistance of structural components must be verified using: A. UL assembly listings or engineering analysis B. Paint thickness C. Ventilation specs
D. Water supply curves Assemblies must be UL-listed or evaluated to confirm required fire resistance. 54.Plans for commercial kitchens must include: A. Dining table layout B. Hood suppression system and clearances C. Server uniforms D. Tile finish details Commercial kitchen reviews require fire suppression and hood exhaust designs. 55.A shaft enclosure must have a fire rating of: A. 1 hour for all buildings B. 2 hours if connecting 4 or more stories C. 30 minutes D. None if sprinkled A 2-hour rating is required for shafts that span 4+ floors to prevent vertical fire spread. 56.Which of the following is NOT typically reviewed in a fire alarm submittal package? A. Floor plans B. Fire extinguisher locations C. Battery calculations D. Riser diagrams
60.Which system activation triggers a building-wide evacuation? A. Deluge system B. General fire alarm C. HVAC control D. Smoke detection in one room A general fire alarm initiates building-wide evacuation procedures. 61.A typical working clearance around fire alarm control panels is: A. 18 inches B. 24 inches C. 30 inches D. 36 inches A 30-inch working space is required to allow maintenance and emergency access. 62.What is required for elevator recall function in fire alarm systems? A. Carbon monoxide detectors B. Smoke detectors at each elevator lobby and machine room C. Manual pull station in the cab D. Ground fault detection Elevator recall relies on smoke detection in specific areas for automatic operation. 63.Class I standpipes are intended for use by: A. Fire department personnel only B. Building occupants C. Maintenance workers
D. Security guards Class I standpipes require 2½” hose connections and are intended for trained firefighters. 64.In reviewing a mixed-use occupancy, the plans examiner must verify: A. Water heater placement B. Proper fire separations between use groups C. Lighting color temperature D. Solar panel layout Separation between occupancy types ensures fire containment and safety. 65.The most effective method to evaluate proposed construction against code requirements is: A. Verbal discussion with contractor B. Plan review checklist and code matrix C. Site visit D. Interview with architect Checklists and code matrices ensure thorough, documented, and consistent code evaluation. 66.NFPA 170 provides: A. Fire-resistive testing protocols B. Standard symbols for fire protection drawings C. Electrical system design D. Exit time calculations NFPA 170 standardizes the symbols used on plans for fire protection features.
