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The Frobenius method, a technique used to find power series solutions to ordinary differential equations (ODEs) with regular singular points. The method is demonstrated through examples and theorems, including the case where the indicial roots differ by an integer.
Typology: Lecture notes
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R. C. Daileda
Trinity University
Partial Differential Equations
April 7, 2015
Failure of the power series method
Consider the ODE 2xy ′′^ + y ′^ + y = 0. In standard form this is
y
′′
2 x
y
′
2 x
y = 0 ⇒ p(x) = q(x) =
2 x
, g (x) = 0.
In exercise A.4.25 you showed that 1/x is analytic at any a > 0,
with radius R = a. Hence:
Every solution of 2xy ′′^ + y ′^ + y = 0 is analytic at a > 0
with radius R ≥ a (i.e. given by a PS for 0 < x < 2 a).
However, since p, q, g are continuous for x > 0, general theory guarantees that:
Every solution of 2xy ′′^ + y ′^ + y = 0 is defined for all x > 0.
Question: Can we find series solutions defined for all x > 0?
To find a second independent solution, we instead assume
y = x
r
n=
anx
n
PS with R> 0
n=
anx
n+r (a 0 6 = 0)
for some r ∈ R to be determined. Since
y ′^ =
n=
(n + r )anxn+r^ −^1 , y ′′^ =
n=
(n + r )(n + r − 1)anxn+r^ −^2 ,
plugging into the ODE gives
2 x
n=
(n+r )(n+r −1)anxn+r^ −^2 +
n=
(n+r )anxn+r^ −^1 +
n=
anxn+r^ = 0.
Distributing the 2x and setting m = n − 1 in the first two series
yields
m=− 1
2(m + r + 1)(m + r )am+1xm+r^ +
m=− 1
(m + 1 + r )am+1xm+r
n=
anxn+r^ = 0
or, replacing m with n
(2r (r − 1) + r )a 0 x
r − 1 ︸ ︷︷ ︸ n=− 1
n=
((n + r + 1) (2(n + r ) + 1) an+1 + an) x
n+r = 0.
This requires the coefficients on each power of x to equal zero.
Taking a 0 = 1 in the second we eventually find that
an =
(−1)n 2 n
(2n + 1)!
⇒ y 2 = x^1 /^2
n=
(−1)n 2 n
(2n + 1)!
xn^ =
sin
2 x
This gives the second (linearly independent) solution to the ODE,
and we have the general solution
y = c 1 y 1 + c 2 y 2 = c 1 cos
2 x
2 x
(x > 0).
Remarks:
The fact that both series yielded familiar functions is simply a
coincidence, and should not be expected in general.
One could also have obtained y 2 from y 1 (or vice-verse) using
a technique called reduction of order.
When will the preceding technique work at an “extraordinary” point? Here’s a partial answer:
Theorem
Suppose that at least one of p(x) or q(x) is not analytic at x = 0,
but that both of xp(x) and x^2 q(x) are. If
lim x→ 0
xp(x) = p 0 and lim x→ 0
x^2 q(x) = q 0 ,
then there is a solution to y ′′^ + p(x)y ′^ + q(x)y = 0 (x > 0 ) of the form
y = xr
n=
anxn^ (a 0 6 = 0),
where r is a root of the indicial equation r 2 + (p 0 − 1)r + q 0 = 0.
Example
Find the general solution to x^2 y ′′^ + xy ′^ + (x − 2)y = 0.
In standard form this ODE has
p(x) =
x
and q(x) =
x − 2
x^2
neither of which is analytic at x = 0. However, both
xp(x) = 1 and x^2 q(x) = x − 2
are analytic at x = 0, so we have a regular singularity with
p 0 = lim x→ 0
xp(x) = 1 and q 0 = lim x→ 0
x^2 q(x) = − 2.
The indicial equation is
r 2 + (1 − 1)r − 2 = 0 ⇒ r = ±
Applying the method of Frobenius, we set
y = x
r
n=
anx
n=
anx
n+r (a 0 6 = 0)
and substitute into the ODE, obtaining
(r 2 − 2)a 0 xr^ +
n=
(n + r )^2 − 2
an + an− 1
xn+r^ = 0.
Hence we must have r 2 − 2 = 0 (which we already knew) and
an =
−an− 1
(n + r )^2 − 2
−an− 1
n(n + 2r )
for n ≥ 1.
Taking a 0 = 1 one readily sees that
an =
(−1)n
n!(1 + 2r )(2 + 2r )(3 + 2r ) · · · (n + 2r )
What do we do if the indicial roots differ by an integer?
Theorem
Suppose that x = 0 is a regular singular point of
y ′′^ + p(x)y ′^ + q(x)y = 0, and that the roots of the indicial equation are r 1 and r 2 , with r 1 − r 2 ∈ N 0.
If r 1 = r 2 = r , the second solution has the form
y 2 = y 1 ln x + x
r
n=
bnx
n .
If r 1 > r 2 (so that y 1 uses r 1 ), the second solution has the form
y 2 = ky 1 ln x + xr^2
n=
bnxn^ (b 0 6 = 0).
Example
Find the general solution to xy ′′^ + (1 − x)y ′^ + 2y = 0, x > 0.
In standard form we have
p(x) =
1 − x
x
and q(x) =
x
which are non-analytic at x = 0, and
xp(x) = 1 − x and x
2 q(x) = 2x,
which are. This makes x = 0 a regular singularity with
p 0 = lim x→ 0
1 − x = 1 and lim x→ 0
2 x = 0,
and indicial equation
r 2 + (1 − 1)r + 0 = 0 ⇒ r = 0.
According to the theorem, a second independent solution has the
form
y 2 = y 1 ln x + x
0
n=
bnx
n
w
and we need to solve for the bn. The product rule gives us
y 2 ′ = y 1 ′ ln x +
y 1
x
y
′′ 2 =^ y^
′′ 1 ln^ x^ +
2 y 1 ′
x
y 1
x^2
and plugging these into xy 2 ′′ + (1 − x)y 2 ′ + 2y 2 = 0 we obtain
( xy
′′ 1 + (1^ −^ x)y^
′ 1 + 2y 1
=
ln x − y 1 + 2y
′ 1 +^ xw^
′′
′
xw
′′
′
′ 1 +^ y^1.
We now plug y 1 = 1 − 2 x + x^2 /2 and w =
n=1 bnx
n (^) into this
equation to obtain a recurrence for the bn:
b 1 +
n=
(n + 1)^2 bn+1 − (n − 2)bn
xn^ = 5 − 4 x +
x^2
2
Hence
b 1 = 5, 4 b 2 + b 1 = − 4 , 9 b 3 =
and
bn+1 =
(n − 2)bn
(n + 1)^2
⇒ bn =
36 b 3
n(n − 1)(n − 2)n!
for n ≥ 3.
Thus, since b 3 = 1/18,
y 2 =
1 − 2 x +
x^2
2
y 1
ln x + 5x −
x^2 + 2
n=
xn
n(n − 1)(n − 2)n! ︸ ︷︷ ︸ w