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UNE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
While caring for a pregnant patient, the nurse realizes that the hypertrophy of the uterus myometrium is called: A. pathologic hypertrophy B. Physiology hypertrophy C. Stretch hypertrophy D. Trophic Hypertrophy - answer B. physiologic hypertrophy Which statement ending would be FALSE regarding adaptive changes of cells? Cells can adapt to changes in the environment by: A. atrophy B. hypertrophy C. hyperplasia D. catabolism - answer D. catabolism The _______ phase of the cell cycle is when DNA replication takes place A. M phase B. G1 phase C. G2 phase D. S phase - answer D. S phase GTP-binding proteins (G proteins) function to A. activate receptors on the extracellular surface
B. activate intracellular enzyme systems C. degrade second-messenger molecues D. synthesize ATP - answer B. activate intracellular enzyme systems The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane has low permeability to charge and polar molecules A. true B. False - answer A. true Which of the following reactions would occur in the body spontaneously without energy input (ATP)? A. translation B. trascription C. calcium extrusion from the cell D. potassium exiting the cell - answer D. potassium exiting the cell Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form A. 34 ATP B. CO2 and H2O C. oxygen and ATP D. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate - answer D. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate Diffusion and osmosis occur passively A. true B. false - answer A. true
A. hyper-secretion of aldosterone B. multiple wound drainage sites C. excessive sweating D. decreased fluid intake - answer A. hypersecretion of aldosterone Osmosis describes the movenment of A. water B. all molecules C. glucose D. sodium - answer A. water While reviewing arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds that the patient has a high bicarbonate level. Which condition would be expected to be documented on the patients chart? A. acidosis B. hypomagnesemia C. alkalosis D. hyperkalemia - answer C. Alkalosis A nurse is checking EKG results and notices a tall T wave. What does the nurse suspects the patient is experiencing? A. hypokalemia B. Hpyonatremia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia - answer D. Hyperkalemia A nurse is planning care for patients with potassium disorders. Which assessment is priority for these patients?
A. vision B. cardiac C. Skin D. gastrointestinal - answer B. Cardiac Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) A. calcium B. Chlorine C. sodium D. potassium - answer D. potassium The largest fluid compartment in the body is A. intersitial B. intravascular C. peritoneal D. intracellular - answer D. intracellular A patient asks what aldosterone does. How should the nurse respond? Aldosterone: A. promotes sodium and water excretion B. promotes potassium and water retention C. promotes sodium and water retention D. promotes potassium and water excretion - answer C. promotes sodium and water retention How do cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells?
A. plasma cells B. macrophages C. T cells D. mast cells - answer A. plasma cells Which statement best describes antibodies? A. antibodies can stimulate vasodilation and vasopermeability during inflammation B. antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins C. antibodies are ultimately responsible for cell-mediated immunity D. antibodies are another name for natural killer cells that circulate in the body - answer B. antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins A patient has inflammation. What assessment findings should the nurse observe? A. coughing, sneezing, vomiting B. redness, heat, swelling C. pain, cyanosis, wheezing D. jaundice, constipation, vasodilating - answer B. redness, heat, swelling Prostoglandins cause: A. pain B. clotting C. platelet activation D. mannose release - answer A. pain One of the functions of the complement system is:
A. histamine chemotaxis B. leukocyte degranulation C. opsonization D. cell regeneration - answer C. opsonization Macrophages and dendritic cells are what type of cells? A. antigen-presenting cells B. antibody cells C. antigen cells D. maturation cells - answer A. antigen-presenting cells A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. Which principle should the nurse remember? When mast cells degranulate, the release: A. toxins B. bradykinin C. antibodies D. histamine - answer D. histamine A patient has poison ivy. Which type of reaction did this patient experience? A. type II B. Type III C. Type I D. type IV - answer D. Type IV Which disorder might be expected in a patient with immunodeficiency?
A healthcare provider is discussing the human immunodeficieny virus (HIV) and how is attacks the body. Which answer below correctly completes the following statement? HIV attaches to CD4 receptors found on: A. viruses B. cytotoxic T cells C. helper T cells D. plasma cells - answer C. Helper T cells Which of the following patients would have a transfusion reaction? A. a patient with type AB receiving blood from a person with type B B. a patient with type A receiving blood from a person with type O C. A patient with type B receiving blood from a person with type B D. A patient with type O receiving blood from a person with type AB - answer D. a person with type O receiving blood from a person with type AB A patient has systemic lupus erythematosus. This condition would be classified as an ____________ disease. A. autoimmune B. Antitoxin c. allergen d. alloimmune - answer A. autoimmune A patient has a phagocyte deficiency. Which of the following cells would be affected? A. basophils B. mast cells C. Helper T cells
D. macrophages - answer D. macrophages The P53 gene is best describes as having which function? A. tumor suppresor B. growth stimulator C. Oncogene D. Mutagen - answer A. tumor suppressor Which cancer would be expected in a patient who has chronic infection by the Human Papilloma virus (HPV) A. lung B. cervical C. Gastric D. liver - answer B. Cervical A patient has cancer involving epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis would be documented on the patients chart? A. carcinoma B. sarcoma C. lymphoma D. leukemia - answer A. carcinoma A patient with mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes would be expected to develop which type of cancer? A. stomach B. cervical
C. metastasize to distant sites D. will travel to lymph nodes - answer B. are usually encapsulated An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a patients cancer. The M part of the system stand for: A. Metastasis B. Mammogram C. Mutagen D. MicroRNA - answer A. metastasis The most common routes of metastasis are through the lymphatic system and: A. lungs B. body cavities C. blood vessels D. connective tissue - answer C. blood vessels The primary aim of burn wound management is to: A. prevent microbial colonization of the wound B. prevent trauma to burned tissue C. keep the wound dru D. prevent premature wound closure - answer A. prevent microbial colonization of the wound Most of the manifestations of burn shock can be attributed to: A. decrease capillary permeability B. hypovolemia C. infection
D. Cardiac depression - answer B. hypovolemia Which of the following burns is most painful? A. deep partial thickness B. Third degree C. superficial partial thickness D. first degree - answer C. superficial partial thickness The first priority in rescuing a burning individual is A. removing his or her clothing B. establishing a patent airway C. eliminating the source of the burn D. covering the wounds - answer C. eliminating the source of the burn A diet that has which of the following would increase cancer risk? A. fruits and vegetables B. grilled blackened meats C. high fiber content D. whole grains and nuts - answer B. grilled blackened meats Which of the following cancers is considered to be the most malignant? A. melanoma B. squamous cell carcinoma C. hyperkeratosis D. basal cell carcinoma - answer A. melanoma
D. DNA methylation - answer D. DNA methylation Ligand - answer a signalling molecule specific to a receptor Contact Dependent communication - answer cell interacting with receptor of target cell Paracrine and Apocrine communication - answer involve release of a chemical in close proximity to a target cell Example of paracrine communication - answer nitric oxide release from endothelial cells causing vasodilation Example of Autocrine communication - answer release of estrogen from follicular cells Hormonal - answer release of chemical signals from glandular cells transported to target cell through circulation system Neurohormone - answer chemical signals released from nervecells rather than a gland Example of neurohormones - answer release of ATP from the pituitary gland Neurotransmitter - answer release of neurotransmitter through a synapse to a target receptor cell Membrane functions - answer barrier structure organize transport across the barrier signal transduction Signal Transduction - answer proteins serve as receptors, transporters, enzymes, surface markers, CAMs
Receptors - answer 1. Ligand binds to an intergral protein
- Ligand bind to a receptor on an ion channel resulting in opening or closing of a channel
- Ligand binds to receptor Receptor Modulation - answer ability to dine tune signals in cells Metabolism - answer how cells utilize energy to do work Energy - answer capacity to do work -cannot be destroyed -can be transformed Anabolism - answer building reaction where we take small molecule and construct macromolecules
- ATP is used Example of anabolism - answer amino acids made into proteins Catabolism - answer Break down reactions -energy released as ATP Cellular Respiration - answer combustion of glucose in the presence of oxygen CO2 & H2O & energy What is ATP made out of? - answer ADP + Pi + energy Oxidation - answer removal of energy rich elevtrons
ATP is responsible for - answer -cellular transport -muscle contraction -enzyme reactions Proliferation - answer process which cells divide Phases of Mitosis - answer - interphase
- prophase -metaphase -anaphase -telophase Check Points of Cell proliferation - answer -G -S -G -M G1 (Gap 1) - answer preparing to undergo DNA replication - the period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis S (synthesis) - answer DNA replication - DNA is synthesized in the Nucleus G2 (Gap 2) - answer prepare for mitosis and cytokenesis - RNA and protein synthesis occur, the period between the completin of DNA synthesis and the M phase M - answer Mitosis - includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic division Cyclins - answer molecules that gradulaly accumulate during cell cycle, bind to and activate CDK
CDK - answer Cyclin Dependent Kinase - ability to phosphorilate proteins to activate them Normal Cells - answer can adapt to stress from function in a normal way. if the cell doesn't adapt cellular injury can occur. Atrophy - answer cell number is normal, size is smaller Hypertrophy - answer same number of cells, large in size Hyperplasia - answer more cells than began with Ischemia - answer loss of blood flow Anoxia - answer lack of oxygen - without oxygen there is a lack of metabolism and use of ATP Necrosis - answer uncontrolled cell death Apoptosis - answer programmed cell death Reprofusion Injury - answer thrombus leading to anoxia and ischemia, cells swell and function is impaired. Can be fixed with surgery. Cells have generated free radicals which can lead to necrosis Cell Death - answer happens with irreversible cell injury -Necrosis -apoptosis Erythropoietin
