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West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. B. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. C. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm. D. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. - A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. C. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. D. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. - B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: A. trench foot. B. frostnip. C. frostbite. D. immersion foot. - C. frostbite.
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. full-thickness. B. superficial. C. partial-thickness. D. third-degree. - B. superficial. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. headache. B. hot, dry skin. C. nausea. D. tachycardia. - Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. water in the lungs following submersion in water. B. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. C. temporary survival after submersion in water. D. death from suffocation after submersion in water. - D. death from suffocation after submersion in water. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 88°F (31°C). B. 98°F (37°C).
Select one: A. cold-water immersion. B. an air embolism. C. alcohol intoxication. D. possible spinal injury. - D. possible spinal injury. The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: A. abdominal or joint pain. B. difficulty with vision. C. tightness in the chest. D. dizziness and nausea. - A. abdominal or joint pain. The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. cardiovascular system. B. renal system. C. respiratory system. D. nervous system. - D. nervous system. When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: A. evaporation. B. conduction. C. radiation.
D. convection. - B. conduction. Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion B. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Local swelling and ecchymosis - D. Local swelling and ecchymosis Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. B. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate. C. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. - D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: A. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. B. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. C. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest.
B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose - C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. - C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions. - D. take standard precautions. An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. - C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history - A. nature of illness Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. is less resistant to treatment. - B. has a greater ability to produce disease. In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. epidemics. B. parasitic infection. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. pandemics. -
Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. address the patient's symptoms D. correct the patient's underlying problem - C. address the patient's symptoms The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. - C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. - B. after the primary assessment has been completed. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion
C. Medical history D. Primary assessment - C. Medical history When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. - C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. - C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Substance abuse - D. Substance abuse
and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. trauma emergency. D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. - D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients - A. respiratory patients A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol. D. an antihistamine. - A. epinephrine. A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped
chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Exacerbation of his COPD C. Acute pulmonary embolism D. Rupture of the diaphragm - A. Spontaneous pneumothorax A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. - A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system. - A. immune system. Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways
D. Capillaries - A. Alveoli Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg - D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds. - A. abnormal breath sounds. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema D. Narcotic overdose - B. Severe anxiety
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Celiac sprue - C. Cystic fibrosis Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Lung sounds C. Blood glucose levels D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation - B. Lung sounds While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Widespread atelectasis
B. tuberculosis. C. pneumonia. D. influenza Type A. - B. tuberculosis. Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. alternate drive B. CO2 drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive - C. hypoxic drive A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. - D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. - B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. - C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. - B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease - B. Acute myocardial infarction
